
Originally Posted by
JBI
Well, the model is clearly Pride and Prejudice, which has been, I would argue, misinterpreted to feature a new setting. In it, the woman, Elizabeth is portrayed as the one with independence and power, with wit and charm, and also without a job, and with arguably a pretty easy life.
Compared to contemporaries, who have kids probably, mortgages and dayjobs, that can be quite a removal - but lets go on. She ends up rich and happy, never having to do a days work, she ends up with a great deal of control over her husband, who ends up essentially begging her to accept him at the end, and in between that, all she had to do was go to a few dances, travel by carriage in a nice spring dress, and have dinner with a miserable, albeit rich Lady in her richly decorated estate.
Now, all that makes sense when Austen is writing it, as it is, arguably, an outright critique - a not so common occurrence, which is put in contrast to, for instance, her friend Charlotte's circumstances. But for the popular romance, this sort of fantasy is merely reconstructed as a sort of historical reality, and made to be played out (with a few minor changes, like making a secondary rival to the girl more prominent (the whore) and making the girl a little bit more "damseled up" (the virgin) and the man more of an idealized "hunk", whereas the anti-man "Whickham" seems to be the same). The setting though is not the real setting, it is a mere fabrication of it.
There is no 19th century in these 19th century set texts. Perhaps all the pretty clothes the women wear are taken out of reference books, but what about all the ugly ones the poor people wear?
I think I have justified my response significantly?