I'm not quite sure it's so simple as this. During the medieval time-period in Europe, for example, Latin was the language of the educated/clerical people, and the vernacular the language of the "peasant" class. King Edward III of England spoke French to his advisors, not English. The original writers need not use the language of those they write about - they merely need be accurate in their portrayal of events/ideas. The issue is not that we have "original words" in terms of Aramaic, but that the writers who are writing had first-hand knowledge of their topic. Language is not the definitive argument against apostolic authority in the gospels.



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