A Challenge: Why does Hamlet refuse the letters from Ophelia in III,i ?

[Darkwingpuck]

In act three, scene one, line ninety six Hamlet claims to have never given Ophelia the letters of affection which she presents to him. He refuses to accept them.

I am currently enrolled in a University course exploring critical analysis of Shakespeare's work. My final paper for the course will revolve strongly around the previously mentioned scene and specifically line 96. Before I go any further into my own personal contention I would like to know what some of you think.

Why does Hamlet deny knowledge of the letters?

[Gladys]

Hamlet's "I never gave you aught" implies he gave 'remembrances' to one, pure, honest and without artifice - not to such a one as now addresses him. Besides, he's seeming mad.

[John-a-dreams]

When Hamlet says "No, not I. I never gave you aught", he is referring to the fact that his character has changed from what is was. He is no longer the same man who, smitten by Ophelia, gave her love in his gifts. His opinion of women in general has declined significantly. First, his mother "post[ed] with...dexterirty to incestuous sheets"- (she gave in to her sexual desires by marrying Claudius extremely quickly after her husbands death) and then Ophelia all of a sudden ignores him (because of her brother's and her father's advice- but Hamlet doesn't know this). He now finds all women weak- "frailty, thy name is woman!" he cries. Thus, because his perspectives has significantly shifted, he remarks that the PRESENT hamlet, the changed Hamlet, did not present her with the gifts. Ophelia either doesn't understand him, or pretends not to, as she says "my lord, you know right well you did" in the next line. Personally, i think he is still a little hurt when Ophelia spurns him- also, i don't think he's putting on an "antic disposition" here- there is too much emotion in his words.

[Gladys]

When Hamlet says "No, not I. I never gave you aught", he is referring to the fact that his character has changed from what is was.

I find your interpretation persuasive but can you demonstrate where mine fails? Has not the character of Ophelia also changed, in Hamlet's estimation?