
Originally Posted by
TheFifthElement
I feel that there is a need, on my part to explain my thinking on this subject in a bit more depth, because a number of people have stated that I am applying human psychology to animals, but this is something I have tried very hard to avoid. In my thinking I have only sought to apply my human morality to human behaviour. I think this is best explained by illustration so, take for example the following moral statement :
"It is wrong to kill for fun."
If I apply this statement to human interrelation the statement becomes :
"It is wrong for a human to kill another human for fun."
Which is a statement I agree with. So, if I were to apply the psychology of this statement to, say, lizards it would become :
"It is wrong for a lizard to kill another lizard for fun."
but this I cannot answer. I cannot apply my human morality to lizards. However, I can (and will) apply my human morality to the behaviour of humans towards lizards, in which case the statement would be :
"It is wrong for a human to kill a lizard for fun."
Which I agree with. If I didn't agree with the statement I would need to examine why and, if changes to the statement are needed, qualifications for example, then I must apply the revised statement back to human interrelation to ensure that the qualified statement worked. Only if it works in relation to the behaviour will the precept be sound, in my opinion.
Applying this process to the question of ownership, I apply the same approach:
"It is wrong for a human to own another human."
and I agree with this statement as ownership implies subjugation. Take the statement and apply it to human behaviour towards lizards:
"It is wrong for a human to own a lizard."
I think this rings true, again, in my opinion.
But Virgil, Sweets America and Lote have raised interesting and valid points. Virgil stated that, in the example of dogs, dogs live with humans by instinct, or choice, Sweets America stated that she does not feel that she owns her dog, and Lote stated that it is a symbiotic relationship. Therefore, whilst I have satisfied myself on the question of ownership, does it ring true that a relationship of choice, or symbiosis is acceptable, and what the statement would be if, in relation to humans and dogs, it was not a question of ownership. So, I make this statement :
"It is not wrong for a human to enter into a relationship with a human."
but then I can think of examples where this would not be true, for example in the case of a celebrity and a stalker. So, it seems that an element of mutual consent seems to be a requirement, the statement becomes :
"It is not wrong for a consenting human to enter into a relationship with a consenting human."
and in relation to dogs,
"It is not wrong for a consenting human to enter into a relationship with a consenting dog."
which I agree with. I could apply this statement consistently to lizards, fish, birds and so on.
This then becomes a question of consent, how do we know that the dog is a consenting dog, or the lizard a consenting lizard? The only answer I can give to this is that there must be no barriers to the dog or the lizard entering or leaving the relationship, i.e. the 'no locked doors' rule, unless someone can suggest a better test. I don't think, on the basis that we cannot apply human psychology to animals, that you can say that the appearance of 'happiness' is the test. So, in the example of the dog, it is fair to say that 'my dog wags it's tail when it sees me', but it is application of human psychology to say that 'my dog is pleased to see me', or 'my dog is happy to see me' as 'happiness' and 'pleased to see me' are both human psychological states.
It is important to me that I apply my human morality consistently, and as objectively as is possible to my behaviour. But I can only apply them to my human behaviour and, unless society accepts the same morality and makes it law, I can only apply it to me.
I fully accept that everyone will not agree with my morality, but the application of it is logical, consistent and in so far as it is possible, objective. If there are people that think my moral statement : "It is wrong for a human to own a lizard" is incorrect then the statement must need qualification. If so, the question is what qualification, and is it possible to apply the qualification consistently i.e back to human interrelation?