Similarities as intertextual references

[tomfyhr]

Does works of different sorts that shares similarities in both themes and plot-points to a literary works, serve as intertextual references or allusions?

For example, could Arthur Miller´s "The Crucible" alludes to Shakespear´s "Macbeth"? In both works there are witches present, though in the former work they are only hypothetical, and are physical in the latter one. One other similarity, is that the societies in both works has their downfalls rooted in hysteria, in Macbeth it is due to Mr.Macbeth´s corruption and in The Crucible it is due to the with-trials in Salem.

Would you conclude that Arhtur Miller´s "The Crucible" alludes to Shakespear´s "Macbeth" based on the previous explanation?

[OrphanPip]

Does works of different sorts that shares similarities in both themes and plot-points to a literary works, serve as intertextual references or allusions?

For example, could Arthur Miller´s "The Crucible" alludes to Shakespear´s "Macbeth"? In both works there are witches present, though in the former work they are only hypothetical, and are physical in the latter one. One other similarity, is that the societies in both works has their downfalls rooted in hysteria, in Macbeth it is due to Mr.Macbeth´s corruption and in The Crucible it is due to the with-trials in Salem.

Would you conclude that Arhtur Miller´s "The Crucible" alludes to Shakespear´s "Macbeth" based on the previous explanation?

I wouldn't consider it unreasonable, but if I were grading a paper I would expect my students to support such an argument with some sort of textual reference in terms of common vocabulary or such. It's also reasonable to use such a comparison to rhetorically develop a separate argument about the role of hysteria in "The Crucible" if you're just trying to draw attention to a comparable theme in another well known work.