but why do you think it's not relevant? the genetic aspect would be the only "scientific"/"rational" etc whatever you'd like to call it argument that any court could adduce here, but they can obviously not do that because then they would have to make a lot of things illegal: drinking during pregnancy, disabled ppl having children, maybe they'd even have to introduce genetic screening and order every disabled foetus to be aborted??? I mean in all of these cases the birth of a disabled child is very probable and could be prevented. So why is it not prevented in these cases but with incest it is? Don't get me wrong, I am absolutely against this kind of eugenics, I'm just trying to understand the logic of the court rulings.





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do you mean sacred as in the good old tantric times olden times or sacred as in "sex serves procreation and should not be fun"?


