Hi,
This is a question that's always bothered me. Here goes: Why is Lucy Steele able to marry Robert with no problems, but they weren't OK with her marrying Edward?
My own thought is that they didn't approve of the secret engagement, which is obviously why they disinherited Edward. But they also weren't friendly to Lucy after that--so why could her marriage to Robert be acceptable?
Help me understand this. Maybe I'm just not understanding the context or the society back then.
Amanda
See chapter 49, about half way through the chapter, with the paragraph that begins "'However it may have come about,' said Elinor." Due to the spite of Mrs. Ferrars, because her son Edward chose to marry "beneath" him, by marrying someone who had no social rank of any standing, and no fortune, Mrs. Ferrars gave her son Robert his inheritance in an irrevocable form, making him independent. Due to this, Robert no longer needed to please his mother to insure his inheritance. As Elinor says, Mrs. Ferrars has "brought on herself a most appropriate punishment."
It was not acceptable to Mrs. Ferrars, and Mrs. John Dashwood for Robert to marry Lucy, but they had no control over his actions.
If you are talking about the movie (1995) and how this is explained in the movie, several people, Mrs. Jennings, and Colonel Brandon, speak of Mrs. Ferrars settling an irrevocable inheritance on Robert, which makes him independent.
Last edited by vanderson5; 08-20-2007 at 03:01 AM.
Because the fortune was irrevocably transferred to Robert.
maybe it is for mere pungent satire
I felt that Lucy (and Robert, in his own way) was quite manipulative. To quote "All the President's Men": "Follow the money."
I felt very unfair to see Robert and Lucy to not only got the inheritance but later got back into the "in" group, ie into the "good books" with the family. But I guess life is full of this unfairness.
Because Mrs. Ferrars loved Robert best and was more willing to forgive him. And they had to leave the estate to someone.
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