1. Why did Goldstein use more Newspeak words than any party member? If he was an invention of the Party, shouldnt he be using Oldspeak instead to remove any doubt of his existence? Is it meant to be ironic?
2. How was the doubt of the reality of Goldstein removed at the sight of the Eurasian Army? Its not very convincing, isnt it?
3. How could there be a link of understanding between Obrien and Winston when Winston did not even know for sure that Obrien said they would meet in the place where there was no darkness? Why would it not matter whether Obrien was friend and foe? He ended up being a foe and torturing Winston.
All qns are from Chapter 1 of the book and are qns I thought of when reading.


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