I recently had an interesting article on an assignment: http://www.theglobeandmail.com/arts/...rticle4219516/
One of the questions I was asked was related to this quote (6th paragraph):
"This has always been common practice. Shakespeare never set a single play in the Elizabethan England he lived in, yet his canon doesn’t exactly lack resonance, then or now."
In context what is the definition of resonance?
It was a multiple choice question and I was stuck between meaning and passion. I ended up choosing passion because the author seems to emphasize the fact that writers these days choose to take the easy route: they write something set in the past or future rather than go through the trouble of pinpointing the present (as if they lack passion). Shakespeare on the other hand, did not lack passion despite the fact that his work was never set in the present.
I don't know if im right and wanted some opinions.
Thanks.


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I like it that you try so hard to understand it and I understand how you came to the conclusion that it's passion and not meaning. As you can see, I had to resort to my knowledge about Shakespeare to come to the conclusion why it's meaning.
