Gee.. I wonder who wrote about Romeo and Juliet? Duh! William Shakespeare!!! Obviously you have much more research to do. I'd like to see other writers play off their own pieces in such a manner.
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Gee.. I wonder who wrote about Romeo and Juliet? Duh! William Shakespeare!!! Obviously you have much more research to do. I'd like to see other writers play off their own pieces in such a manner.
I think you should find out who wrote about Romeo and Juliet.
Shakespeare used Pyramus and Thisbe intentionally in Midsummer Night's Dream. Where in the comedy, the love stories turn out perfectly, in a tragedy, the lovers are never so lucky. Shakespeare uses the play within a play (which intentionally mirrors Romeo and Juliet) at the wedding celebration of the the 3 couples for a very specific reason. The tragedy is so poorly acted that it becomes comedy, and this in turn takes the dangers of love, in this example a double suicide, and makes then just a dream. Afterwards, the lovers can go to bed and be happy, unlike their counterparts in Romeo and Juliet.<br> And finally, since when does referencing your own work make you a copier? In case you're more uneducated than you sound, I'll fill you in on a well known fact. Shakespeare, in addition to writing Midsummer Night's Dream, also wrote Romeo and Juliet.
Whatever happened to just enjoying a play. Who care where he got the ideas. A work of art is a work of art
William Shakespeare wrote Romeo & Juliet as well as a midsummer night's dream. I also don't think that refering 2 yr own work is coping, since U wrote it in the 1st place. Also, the 'nonsense language' he writes in is old English. Check yr facts 1st, mate.
I swear people like you destroy these message boards. First, Pyramis and Thisbe is a very old play, way before Shakespeare's time. Also how can you accuse Shakespeare of ripping off Romeo and Juliet? It's his play! Next time check your sources.<br><br>y0u 4r3 4 c0nnpl3t3 1cI10t
Shakespeare didn't come up with his own language, granted he did create several words (i.e. bedroom), he just used the language of the time. check your sources before you open your mouth next time.<br>
1. Romeo and Juliet was written by shakes himself<br>2. the 'nonsense language' is old english<br>3. Get a life and start enjoying real literature and don't just invent some stupid comment!
What an idiot, Lisa, honey, Shakespeare WROTE Romeo and Juliet, and in A Midsummer Night's Dream, he was simply poking fun at his own play. It's called a "sense of humor". Just because you may not find it funny these days, things were different. And, everyone makes up words, I mean, honestly are "yo" and "gangsta" and "fo shizzle ma nizzle", etc. actually words/phrases? Um, no! Personally, I don't think Shakespeare even invented his own language but even if he did, well, so does our media pop culture but you don't go around saying anything against them, do you?
First of all I recommend to you the book and the TV series IN SEARCH OF SHAKESPEARE, by Michael Wood, BBC.<br><br>Secondly, what about you, Lisa? Can you recommend some of your great unstolen literary works? Thank you.
I just can't believe you don't have a clue who wrote Romeo and Juliet!! Did you go to school??????????!!!!!!!!! If you don't kno wat your talking bout don't even bother writing on message boards!!!
You might have noticed if you bothered to do a little research that the story of Pyramus and Thisbe is a part of Greek/Latin mythology and that his account matches well with the Latin poet Ovid's in his book Metamorphoses. This is called an allusion (no, not an Illusion). He is making a reference to a story that was well known at the time his play is set to make a point, not attempting to pass it off as his own. He intentionally DIDN'T use Romeo and Juliet because the play he wrote HIMSELF did not exsist in the time period that Midsummer Night's Dream is set (Ancient Greece). Now go try to buy some brain cells off of eBay.<br>
Actually dear, Shakespeare is the one who made up many of the English words that people use now. The language he was using is called archaic and it is definitely not made up. The language is well documented and it was really how people in England used to talk a long time ago. With regards to copying Romeo And Juliet. You got it backwards. If anything was copied it would be Pyramus and Thisbe because it was written way before Shakespeare was even born. However, many experts have uncovered some facts that lead them to believe that Romeo and Juliet was based on once existing lovers in England, or within Europe anyway, which meet their demise because their families were enemies. Besides, falling in love with the enemy is not as uncommon as you might think. I bet Romeo and Juliet's plot has happened in real life many times before and happened to real people.
Shakespeare was nothing but a copier that made up his own nonsense language. You will notice that Pyramus and Thisbe has a very similar ending to Romeo And Juliet; proof that William took the ideas of other authors and made his own plays using their ideas.
Let's clear some stuff up here...
1. Shakespeare did not speak, or write in "old" English as everyone seems to think. He spoke, and wrote in Modern English, the very same type of English we speak today. However, language changes throughout the years, and adapts to changing times and cultural evolution. Just like Americans eventually stopped speaking with English accents (many of our founding fathers had English accents, because they or their ancestors were from England), the English language itself has not proceeded into a new a different era than was spoken during Elizabethan England, it has morphed to adapt to continuously modern times. A deliniation of a new "era" of English would include and have to demonstrate a significant altering of spelling of words, the origin of those words, and definition. Also, it is important to remember that Shakespeare was writing in iambic pentameter, and many other rythmic forms of speech. People didn't really speak like they do in many of his plays.
2. Pyramus and Thisbe (yes, that is how it is spelled) is a play within a play. A Midsummer's Night was written AFTER Romeo and Juliet...Shakespeare is simply being witty and clever.
3. For the girl who had no idea that Shakespeare wrote Romeo and Juliet, may I suggest you go back to high school, or that your teachers be fired for ever letting you continue through an English course without that knowledge. You should feel not only like an idiot, but also be incredibly ashamed.
I belive I can hear Shakespeare rolling in his grave right now...
I quite disagree with Khanrer. Recently I was fortunate enought to be in the UK and heard a performance of two of Shakespeares play in the Idiom of the times. True it was not Old English, but it definitely was spoken differently than todays english. I got a lot more out of it by listening and finally understood some of the meanings that I always thought of as boring. I never realized how refreshing it was to hear it as the people really spoke it. As an example, a very poor one mind you, listen to very old movies that were made in 1920's and you will hear phrases and pronunciations that today's youth just cannot understand. Also the meanings for slang words are much different than today.
Yes, a lot of words were different. It is still, however, 'modern english'. As in, after, 'old english' and 'middle english', not as in 'english as it is spoken today'. Language has always been mobile, new words get added and old ones fall out of use, but 'modern english' has been around since at least the 1400s!Quote:
Originally Posted by Donald B
I live in the UK and have seen several of the plays performed in the original language - you have to bear in mind that that is what they were designed for, to be seen, not read. Of course there will be more clarity. There is, however, no guarantee that it is spoken as it would have been in the 15/1600s, as pronunciation also changes, although it's still the same language.
:lol: You see that, Lisa? That's me laughing at you. Shakespere wrote R & J, AMSND, and many others. Clearly he's not "copying" because HE WROTE THEM! Also, he wrote in Elizabethan English. It was the precursor to Modern English. Elizabethan English is pretty much Modern English squished with Old English. As in "Go to thou bedroom, Romeo" As I said. Somebody's an idiot!
oh my god......oh my god.....i just absolutely cannot believe that you didn't know that in actual fact.. William Shakespeare WROTE Romeo and Juliet....GGRRRRRR....so how can he copy HIS OWN BRILLIANT WORK!!!!!
eeeeeek..that was sooooo stupid little gurl...u need to do serious homework...
~sigh~
I imagine that years from now, the language we speak shall be known as "Post-Modern English," if it is called "English" at all.
I'm trying to work out if this thread is a spoof or not.
Unfortunately, I think that's a 'no.'
Lisa, get some quality education!
Lisa, how old are you? Bcos im only 12 yrs old and i already know the fundamental fact that Shakespeare NEVER has copied in the course of history. Your statement is just like saying that J.K Rowling is a copier of texts bcos in the book, HArry Potter and the Order of the Phoenix, the name " Cho Chang" was copied from HArry Potter and the Goblet of Fire!
Correct me if I'm wrong but wasnt the original poster referring to the fact that Pyramus and Thisbe (written by someone other than Shakespeare way before Shakespeares time) has a similar ending to Romeo and Juliet? Thus saying that Shakespeare has copied (to some extent) the tragedy of Pyramus and Thisbe in his play of Romeo and Juliet? Confusing to start with, but I think that's the just of what they were saying, not that he had copied Romeo and Juliet in A Midsummer Night's Dream of Pyramus and Thisbe. I'm sure they knew who wrote Romeo and Juliet! That's what I understood by the post anyway.
Let's be honest, all the great writers of all languages, genres, and times have taken the ideas of one or several others and fused them together to create something even more rich with originality. It was original because no one had thought to put it together in such a way. Though, I do find it completely true that most of Shakespeare's plays were based on others' works. Mary Shelly did the same thing. All great writers get their influence from somewhere. They have to, else they wouldn't be writing. The real thing that should be looked into is who really wrote his plays and sonnets. Was it him? Many believe otherwise and who is to say he did?
i wonder, instead of shouting at this girl to get an education, would you take the time to note that she probably meant 'Elizabethian English' & not 'Middle/Anglo Saxon English' when she said 'old english'
The 'First Folio' was published by Shakespeare's colleagues John Heminges and Henry Condell in 1623 about seven years after Shakespeare's death (well into James I's reign btw). Spoken english at that time wouldn't be largely different than how we speak now though the spelling would be, say this passage from Henry V aloud & i'm sure your brain will make the corrections for you...
And tell the pleasant Prince, this Mocke of his
Hath turn'd his balles to Gun-stones, and his soule
Shall stand sore charged, for the wastefull vengeance
That shall flye with them: for many a thousand widows
Shall this his Mocke, mocke out of their deer husbands;
Mocke mothers from their sonnes, mock Castles downe:
And some are yet vngotten and vnborne,
That shal haue cause to curse the Dolphins scorne.
But this lyes all within the wil of God
if not:
And tell the pleasant prince, this mock of his hath turned
his balls to gun-stones, and his soul shall stand sore charged
for the wasteful vengeance that shall fly with them: for many
a thousand widows shall this his mock, mock out of their dear
husbands, mock mothers from their sons, mock castles down,
and some are yet ungotten and unborn that shall have cause
to curse the Dauphins scorn! But this lies all within the will of God
Shakespeare was art for goodness sakes! if this girl is being annoying just to irritate people then more shame on her, if not, then she's an unfortunate fool who deserves pity not anger surely?? :(