Originally Posted by
desiresjab
If I take (x2+4)-(x2+3)=1,
that seems to imply that to me that 1 and x2+3 are equivalent, since it does seem that everything (and this includes x2+3) is a multiple of 1.
Yet it definitely puts x2+4 in the residue class (equivalence class?) of 1, where x2+3 is in the 0 class mod itself, so it is hard for me to see them as equivalent.
The above indicates to me that 1 and x2+4 are in the same residue class (equivalence class?), not that 1 and x2+3 are, which is impossible when x2+3 is the modulus.
It would be possible for polynomials A and B to be in the same residue class. In this case their difference would be, too. A, B and B-A would all have the same residue class.
Each residue class (equivalence class?) must form an ideal. All polynomials leaving a residue of 1, for instance, would form an ideal. All polynomials leaving a residue of 2 would form another ideal, etc. All polynomials leaving a residue of technically 0 would be in the same class as x2+3.