re: Jesus' claims to divinity
One thing that helped me to learn how dangerous and "blasphemous'' it was for Jesus to claim to be God was an understanding of Jewish customs during his lifetime. Jesus was a poor middle aged Jew when he began his ministry. He lived and taught in a Jewish land, to Jewish people.
"You shall have no other Gods but me" (Ex 20:1-6). We also have "Hear, O Israel! The Lord is our God, the Lord alone!" (Deut 6:4). From the New Testament, we see that Jesus's claims of divinity are what caused the Jewish leaders to push for his execution. His blasphemy was of the highest order. I will get to the quotes in a moment.
Quote:
Jesus clearly states that he is God throughout the bible.
There are different ways that Jesus claimed to be God, be equal to God, and have a uniform relationship with God. I myself think of them in this breakdown.
------Jesus the "Son of Man"
------Use of the word "Abba"
------The "I Am" claims
------The miscellaneous claims
------The book of Revelation
The Son of Man title obviously and qualitatively (in my mind, there are Christians who have studied intensely and have a larger view) comes from one of Daniel's eschatological prophecies.
"I saw in the night visions, and behold, with the clouds of Heaven there came one like the Son of Man, and he approached the Ancient of Days and was led into his presence. And to him was given dominion and glory and kingdom, that all peoples, nations, and languages should serve him; His dominion is an everlasting dominion which shall not pass away, and his kingdom one which shall not be destroyed." Daniel 7:13, 14.
One interesting thing to note here is that elsewhere in the Old Testament it is only God who comes on the clouds (Ps. 104:3, Is. 19:1). Accordingly, the Son of Man originates in heaven and comes by divine initiative. The phrase as used in Daniel is "bar enash". What is the significance? The combination "bar enash" and its parallels in Old Babylonian carry the meaning of an heir or successor to royalty, or of a free man of the highest class. A "man" here is not just any man, but as we might say, "THE MAN", as in royalty.
Daniel was written at a time when this phrase had a specific and known meaning. In the context of Daniel 7:13, in which the one "like a son of man" comes to the Ancient of Days (Almighty God) and is given dominion of the sort that God alone possesses, the significance of Jesus' own "son of man" usage cannot be overstated. It is functionally equivalent to saying that he was the entity described in the prophecy. Jesus had no money but he obviously had an education. He knew that the Pharisees and the Sanhedrin knew to whom the prophecy refered. The Messiah. When he describes himself as the Son of Man he asserts the fact that he is fufilling Jewish Messianic prophecies.
Son of Man verses : Mat 8:20, Mat 12:8, Mat 12:32, Mat 13:41, Mat 24:30, 25:31, Mrk 2:28, Mrk 8:38, Mrk 14:62, Lk 9:58, Lk. 18:8, Lk 19:10, Jn 3:14, amongst many others. Also interesting to note is how severely Jews respond to his Son of Man title in certain instances.
"Abba" means "Father" when used among human beings - and to use the term when referring to God was unthinkable! It was not used by Jews in such a familiar way until the Hasidim movement, which began in the 18th century. The use of "Abba" (which equals our "Papa," or perhaps "Daddy") is "without analogy in the Jewish prayers of the first millenium A.D."
Abba is an affectionate term used by young children to talk to their biological fathers. An adult wouldn't call their father "abba", just as we today wouldn't call our fathers "Daddy". Whenever Jesus talked about our relationship to God, he used the term "pater", a respectful adult term meaning "father". For instance, when he told us the Lords Prayer, he used "''pater". Whenever Jesus talked about his own relationship with God, he used the word "abba". When he says "The reason my father loves me is that I lay down my life - only to take it up again", (John 10:17) he uses the word "abba".
In Mark 14:36, the word "abba" is used by Jesus, along with "pater". Jesus used both the familiar term and the term of respect - as did Paul in the Galatians. So these two verses read, "Abba, Father." Note that the retention of both the Aramiac and Greek words is a strong indication that the use of "Abba" goes back to Jesus Himself, since there is no reason why the early Christians should not have been satisfied with Greek equivalents for both words.
Jesus' claims to being the great "I Am" have been a source of personal joy for me. In the gospel of John, when he said "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham even existed, I Am" (8:58) I literally laughed and felt awed by his existence. I also like his style. The crowd had been ridiculing and deriding him, so he put it to them as literally and persuasively as he could.
I guess that the main history of "I am" goes back to Exodus 3:14. (God said to Moses, 'I AM THAT I AM.' And he said, 'Say this to the people of Israel, 'I AM has sent me to you.').
[I took the following from David Mark Ball's 'I Am' in John's Gospel: Literary Function, Background and Theological Implications].
Here are some other parallels . . .
* John 4:26//Is. 52:6
* John 6:20//Is. 43:1-3, 5, 10
* John 8:18, 24, 28, 13:19//Is. 43:10
* John 8:58//Is. 43:13
1. In Isaiah ani hu is "always attributed to Yahweh" and is a statement only he can make. Anyone else making the same statement would be guilty of "an attempt to claim equality with God or displace him."
2. It signifies that "Yahweh alone is God", is sovereign over history, and creator.
3. Though Isaiah is a main focus, Jesus' "I AM" sayings match him with the "the Bread of which the Old Testament spoke, the Light of which Isaiah spoke, the Shepherd of whom Jeremiah and Ezekiel spoke, and the Vine of which many Old Testament passages spoke." The words I AM "thus act as a formula which applies Old Testament and Jewish concepts to the person of Jesus who embodies and fulfills them." [end reference].
I AM thus provides a powerful self-identification in which Jesus identifies himself with the roles and person of YHWH in the Old Testament.
As for miscellaneous claims . . .
Matthew 11:27. "All things have been handed over to Me by my Father: and no one knows the Son, except the Father; nor does anyone know the Father, except the Son, and anyone to whom the Son wills to reveal Him."
Matthew 12:28; parallel in Luke 11:20. "If I cast out demons by the finger of God, then the kingdom of God has come upon you."
Matthew 23:34. "Wherefore, behold, I send unto you prophets, and wise men, and scribes..." In Jewish belief, it is God that is responsible for sending prophets. In saying that He will send prophets, Jesus is equating Himself with God - once again, assuming a role reserved for God alone.
Matthew 24:5; parallels in Mark 5:23, Luke 21:8. "For many shall come in my name, saying, I am Christ: and shall deceive many." This statement would be meaningless if Jesus did not perceive Himself as Christ. The title "Christ," of course, is a Greek equivalent to the Jewish term "Messiah". Therefore, this can be considered to be a claim to divinity if it is shown that Christ/Messiah is a divine title.
Matthew 28:18; similar quotes in Luke 24:25, 46. In this post-resurrection address, Jesus says that all power in heaven and on earth has been given to Him - in short, power that only God has.
Matthew 26:64; parallel in Mark 14:61-4. The high priest asks Jesus directly if He is the Christ, and Jesus answers in the affirmative.
Matthew 9:2; parallels in Mark 2:5, Luke 5:20 and 7:48. Jesus tells people that "their sins are forgiven." This may not seem significant to Western eyes, so an illustration is needed. If John does something bad to Joe, then Joe can forgive John. But it would be ridiculous for Jake - unless he were somehow related to Joe - to forgive John for what he did to Joe. Forgiveness requires the RIGHT to forgive; therefore, Jesus' forgiving the sins of others that He had no personal connection with indicates that He believed that He was the only One who was offended by all sins and therefore had the right to forgive them: God, the author of all moral law. Moreover, this is particularly a noteworthy claim in the context of Judaism, for as Charlesworth notes, "The faithful Jew...acknowledged that only God can forgive the sinner." So in effect, Jesus was assuming the place and role of the entire Temple sacrificial system authorized by God and claiming to be God's broker for forgiveness.
As for Revelation, just chapter 1 ought to suffice (I'm probably running out of room!). Revelation 22:12, 13 are useful.
Jesus summarily equated himself with God. He said he came for his lost sheep (John chp. 10), and to give his life as a ransom for many (Mat. 20:28).
We can either agree or disagree with him. But I think it can be and has been (in other places by smarter and more proficient people than I) shown that Jesus himself knew himself to be the Son of God, equal to God, and the answer and hope for every person. What we do with his assertion is a separate issue.