i think she was referring to pyramus and thisbe
Correct me if I'm wrong but wasnt the original poster referring to the fact that Pyramus and Thisbe (written by someone other than Shakespeare way before Shakespeares time) has a similar ending to Romeo and Juliet? Thus saying that Shakespeare has copied (to some extent) the tragedy of Pyramus and Thisbe in his play of Romeo and Juliet? Confusing to start with, but I think that's the just of what they were saying, not that he had copied Romeo and Juliet in A Midsummer Night's Dream of Pyramus and Thisbe. I'm sure they knew who wrote Romeo and Juliet! That's what I understood by the post anyway.