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Originally Posted by
kiki1982
Don't turn it around now. You said, I quote, "In no culture anywhere at anytime has it been the status quo for the average person to go about raping, killing and enslaving indiscriminately and not receive condemnation." And I disproved it by a number of examples. Not least the crusades where there were almost apocalyptic slaughters on both sides who claimed to fight a holy war. Had they kept it to themselves, you could have understood... but no, they were proud of it as well.
My God, this whole response of your is a travesty and I don't know where to begin. Those crusaders slaughtered in war. Back at home they were not all Charles Mansons.
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I suppose so much for knowing your stuff, right? Mixing people up already.
I would call Hamlet a good play, but not necessarily a perfect play. What does that say? Nothing in this world is perfect.
You can't call Hamlet a good play Kiki. Not according to your own standards of when an adjective is permitted to be used. Way to dodge my point though. Its easy to keep the same beliefs when you completely ignore what the opposite argument is.
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You conveniently ignore that the Vikings raped and killed as well when they emigrated, that the Romans maybe did not kill but enslaved (I would argue that was better value for money), that Caesar largely went on campaign because he had to escape his creditors in Rome, that clearly the Japanese troops must have had some common moral code to kill their adverseries, whatever their ethnicity, that the Incas and Azteks all knew how to do gruesome things. They were maybe not going to kill someone because he was darker or skinnier or anything than them, but seriously, claiming that 'in no culture it has ever been' ok to do these things? I would say the opposite.
Viking culture was a pretty violent culture, but I would not say it fits what I earlier described. And even if it did, the exceptions prove the rule.
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Alexander the Great may have regretted one murder. However, a) how do you know this is true? Documents written in those times should not be taken literally as they can be a reflection of the character given to the figure by the author, so Plutarch must have liked Alexander for some reason (indeed he described Alexander too much with self-control). And b) the fact that he could kill him in a rage frankly shows you that not even a clement person, if clement Alexander were, stands above his nature. He may have regretted it, but he still did it right? So that makes him evil in your book. Not in mine, fortunately.
You're right. Discount Plutarch. Discount Plato and Herodotus too, forget we know anything for sure about Greek history.
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And did not Jesus say that you should not judge? That is good right?
Did not Socrates say that 'no-one desires evil'? Indeed, he claimed that wrong acts always come back to harm the wrongdoer and as no human would ever do something they knew would eventually hurt themselves it is clear that no human would ever do anything wrong they thought wrong at the very moment they were doing it. It is important to distinguish the means from the ends in this which seem to be obscured if you look at things. Indeed, Hitler, nor the others of his regime considerded murdering Jews, Jehova's Witnesses, Gypsies, homosexuals, mentally ill and retarded people, blind and deaf people, handicapped people and so forth wrong. They were merely trying to cleanse their superior race from bad influence. Thus, they were not evil, as they were going to the end they desired which they thought was good. Athough they were ignorant of the fact that there is no such superior Germanic race. And that was their downfall. As the end was wrong, the wrongs they did came back to them. That is all. Therefore, they did not desire evil, nor are they evil according to your own definition.
If you quote a philosopher then please consider his principles first.
And it would indeed be beneficial, as Socrates also said, to consider your own ignorance first before considering your knowledge.
Nietzsche, as far as I understand that is, argued that slave morality wishes to make masters slaves as well. In that, the good is what is useful to the whole of society, not to the strong-willed on their own. Slaves try to make their masters believe that what they do is evil in order to become masters themselves. So, as Hitler believed that the Germanic race was superior, he wished to save the Germanic race from bad influences and thus wished to protect his own. He called it God's will at some point in Mein Kampf. From the views of master morality and slave morality, it is both useful in Nazi ideology to kill the Jews and everyone I listed above too. So who are you calling 'evil'? Essentially, if you admit you are looking to slave morality for this condemnation, the only thing you're admitting is that you are weak. I don't know whether that is what you wished me to think, because then we are in the same camp.
And Nietzsche also understood 'morality' as inseparable from a particular culture, I might add.
To me and as far as I can see, Hitler mixed the two and made the Germanic race both superior and enslaved by the Jews and everyone else to get the most of everything. It is known that they misused Nietzsche's ideas of [/I]Über-[/I] and Untermensch. If they considered themselves masters then they must have decided that it was good what they were doing. Though according to Socrates that would amount to ignorance.
I don't give a flying **** whether the Nazis thought they were doing good or not. Intention means **** all. All that matter is what they did and what they did was evil. I don't see the point in even trying to argue this with you further, especially since this last post of yours shows absolutely zero willingness or ability on your part to take my words seriously. Why should I keep wasting my time?