Hello dear fellows!
I'll probably have some more questions, but here's one:
Why does Macbeth use plural: "Our fears..."?
Thanks for the responders! :banana:
Hello dear fellows!
I'll probably have some more questions, but here's one:
Why does Macbeth use plural: "Our fears..."?
Thanks for the responders! :banana:
Welcome manorguy. It's because he is now king, so he has adopted the royal "we," also known as the majestic plural. This is a nosism soverigns traditionally use, presumably because they speak for more than just themselves. Hope that helped.
That is helpful, and interesting.
At the beginning I thought that by using this "our", Macbeth is referring to himself and to his wife .
Thank you!