the use of the slavery metaphor in Jane Eyre

Much of the criticism I have read, regarding her use of the metaphor of slavery to evoke ideas of domestic oppression, argues that Bronte ignores the material realities of colonial expoitation, and that Jane's affiliation with the enslaved subject is problematic precisely because the likening only serves to be benficial to her.
However, do you think it can be said that the very use of the metaphor gives voice to the silent oppressed, and that it is inevitable Bronte would not discuss the realities of slavery in her novel because she is writing from her own subjective experience in Britain?
any thoughts on whether you think Bronte's likening of a poor lower-class woman to a slave is justified?

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Originally Posted by _poptart_

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do you think it can be said that the very use of the metaphor gives voice to the silent oppressed, and that it is inevitable Bronte would not discuss the realities of slavery in her novel because she is writing from her own subjective experience in Britain?
any thoughts on whether you think Bronte's likening of a poor lower-class woman to a slave is justified?

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I think you've made a justifiable observation.
I don't think it was Bronte's aim to promote a social cause. To tell you the truth, I have always thought Bronte's writing is rather naive and juvenile in nature. I don't think she had a great intellect. I'm sure many people would be surprised at such an opinion.

She is writing from her own subjective - and rather sheltered - experience in Britain. I believe she doesn't write about the plight of the slave because she doesn't really know much about it besides what the human imagination can conclude from our own feelings of being enslaved by our parents and by our teachers when we are children.

That's my opinion anyway.

If Newcomer comes to add his perspective, you will be quite enlightened with a deeply educated opinion.