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I'm doing an assignment on Macbeth.. and one of the research questions is:
Why wasn't Macduff guilty of high treason when he killed Macbeth?
I could do with some help, because all I can think of is because nobody really liked Macbeth so Macduff got away with it.. :(
Macduff would have been 'guilty of high treason when he killed Macbeth' had forces loyal to Macbeth prevailed over Malcolm and his allies at Dunsinane.
At the time of Macbeth's death his supporters have deserted in droves to Malcolm, surrendered, or died in battle. So Malcolm holds sway. Those fighting loyally with him become heroes rather than traitors.
So it is always in war: truth is on the side of the victor.
Thank you very much. :D
Another thing to consider is that Macbeth was not the rightful king. He was king because he murdered the previous king. Once the other lords figured this out (the play never has them flat out say this, but it is implied) it becomes their duty to remove him from office by fighting him.
When does an incumbent monarch (Macbeth), having murdered his predecessor, become the rightful king?Quote:
Originally Posted by sltunnell
- Once he succeeds in crushing all opposition (Macbeth could have killed Macduff and Ross before they fled Scotland).
- Once his power base becomes impregnable (a less cocky, more astute Macbeth would have anticipated the attack on Dunsinane and lived to fight another day).
- When popular opinion acclaims him thus (Macbeth should have indulged more in political spin or 'bread and circuses').
- Once his subjects forget his treacherous accession (both distraction and time heal).
- When his son's son eventually comes to power (royal succession is persuasive).
High treason is usually a matter of perspective.