Pride and Prejudice -Chapter One - Critical Analysis
Hey Everyone,
I have to write a critical essay on Chapter One of Pride and Prejudice basically analysing the chapter. I was wondering if anyone could help...
Why is the opening quote "It is a truth universally acknowledged, that a single man in possession of a good fortune, must be in want of a wife", such a famous quote in English literature? How is this significant in the book?
What points in this chapter do you think I could discuss.. I'm in quite a pickle.
Thank you!
This is not aimed at anyone in particular... just putting it out there...
I would just like to say that not all people think Jane Austen was a feminist, or a social critic.
That must be the latest thing they're teaching in high school and college because I've been hearing it a lot lately.
It's only in the last 50 years or so as feminism has become more powerful, that anyone thought Austen was being critical.
In my opinion, it is more likely that the feminist reader, seeing the way of life 200 years ago, gets up in arms about it, and perceives it that way.
Feminist social commentary is in the eyes of the beholder, imo.
I'm not a feminist and I do not think Austen was.
As a matter of fact, just yesterday I was barefoot in the kitchen. :D
"barefoot in the kitchen"
Quote:
Originally Posted by
RachelUofM
"I would just like to say that not all people think Jane Austen was a feminist, or a social critic.
That must be the latest thing they're teaching in high school and college because I've been hearing it a lot lately.
It's only in the last 50 years or so as feminism has become more powerful, that anyone thought Austen was being critical.
In my opinion, it is more likely that the feminist reader, seeing the way of life 200 years ago, gets up in arms about it, and perceives it that way.
Feminist social commentary is in the eyes of the beholder, imo.
I'm not a feminist and I do not think Austen was."
Of course Austen was not a feminist--Austen would have had no concept of what a feminist even was in the late Eighteenth/early Nineteenth century. However, Austen did go against many social mores of her generation: she never married, for instance. Also, I think you are misinterpreting feminist literary critics--applying a feminist lens to Austen is very natural because she is writing to women in a genre originally attached to women; Austen's novels are tools for instructing women on who the wrong partner is versus the right partner. Just because a critic claims to be a feminist does not mean he/she believes Austen to be one--instead, feminists choose to look at where in the past our present ideologies of the woman were constructed. I've said this several times, but look at Gilbert and Gubar's essay of "The Madwoman in the Attic." These critics argue that there were two conflicting views of women: the "angel of the house," who was obedient to her husband, took care of children, etc., and the "madwoman in the attic" (a reference to Bertha Mason in Jane Eyre). What they propose is that the former depiction of women causes women to be labelled as something they can obviously never be: an "angel." This socially-constructed ideology of a woman as an angellic creature creates many of the issues still involving women today--what if we are neither mad nor angellic? Do we just fail? Gilbert and Gubar argue that these two drastic depictions set women up for failure--if you're mad, you've obviously failed somewhere by society's standards, and since you can never achieve angel status, you automatically fail. By examining Austen's depiction of women through a feminist lens, critics can see where we first develop these ideologies. Now, I'm not a hardcore feminist--especially as a literary critic. However, I think looking at authors like Austen, the Bronte Sisters, and Kate Chopin through a feminist theory makes perfect sense. You can still be "barefoot in the kitchen" and understand where that stereotype first originated.
As an introduction, I view the scene of Keira Knightley barefooted swinging round in the barnyard in the 2005 dramatization of Pride and Prejudice, as beautiful and incisive of Elizabeth's character, while fully realizing that Jane Austen's propriety would not have depicted such. And that is the crux of the argument of viewing Jane Austen and Bronte's as “feminists choose to look at where in the past our present ideologies of the woman were constructed”. To presuppose that poetic interpretation of a fictional character gives us a definitive insight into the authors psyche as to label her a feminist, is in my view aesthetically and historically offensive. RachelUofM's argument is too sophisticated to make such an error but the majority of the young women in the Forum do make such a claim, especially in the reference to Jane Eyre's Bertha Mason by viewing that Jean Rhea's Bertha is a 'prequel', a valid interpretation of the minor character in Jane Eyre and hence that Charlotte was a proto-feminist.
To argue that since “Austen did go against many social mores of her generation: she never married, for instance.”, is too simplistic, as it does no take into consideration the 18th. And 19th. century policy of British colonialism resulting in a scarcity of men, especially in the Austen and Bronte's social strata. This is quite aside from the personal inclination of the two women, about which we may only form an educated guess.
RachelUofM reference to Gilbert and Gubar's essay of "The Madwoman in the Attic." is more substantive and thus more interesting. 'The notion that women writers of the 19th Century were essentially "madwomen" because of the restrictive gender categories enforced upon them both privately and professionally. In their re-examination of these writers, they argue that madness often became a metaphor for suppressed female revolt and anger.' and 'They especially argue against conservative literary critic Harold Bloom's theory of Oedipal poetics, proclaiming that the relationship he describes does not hold true for female authors.' That Bloom's oedipal theory of influence of conflict, aggression, competition, and specifically of son displacing the father - “May father Dante forgive me” could be countered by Jane Eyre's “ I have no relative but the universal mother, nature: I will seek her breast”- chapter 28 Jane Eyre. The postulate of female pre-Oedipal poetics of affiliation, dependence of daughter bond with mother, of literary intimacy. Beautiful and thought provoking. The substance rests on interpretation, finally on the scholarship of Bloom vs that of Gilbert and Gubar.
“By examining Austen's depiction of women through a feminist lens, critics can see where we first develop these ideologies..... However, I think looking at authors like Austen, the Bronte Sisters, and Kate Chopin through a feminist theory makes perfect sense." Here I disagree, it may be interesting, even informative of the contemporary sensibility but it does not “make perfect sense.” Jane Austen's and Charlotte Bronte's works are fictional creations, more of poetic than of social criticism. To read them through a feminist lenses is to create another stereotype.