Fair is foul and foul is fair

[nilkontho]

The witch in the 'Macbeth' hailed with this words. To be scientifically true, Witch never exists. But it indeed exists in our mind. The fate of Macbeth is well known. Ambition leads Macbeth to the destruction. Being a reader I have an enquires...Macbeth is only responsible for his destiny? Can Lady Macbeth be ignored or she must be introduced to complete the story? Yes, Lady Macbeth is one of the central characters. I have no idea whether Macbeth's ambition was provoked or it was initiated by Lady Macbeth.

Apart from my quest to know Macbeth more deeply I want to express that I need this answer to solve a puzzle in my personal life which has become no better than a hell to me.
I urge to those whoever reading this post, to reply with a precise and compact answer.

[Dreamwoven]

I think Macbeth is one of the best plays that Shakespeare wrote. Not sure it is possible to separate the provoking from initiating in this case. Lady Macbeth could be said to have done both, though the desire for power by Macbeth is evident even early on.

[Leopard]

I think his ambition was always there to some extent, but he wouldn't have acted on it if not for the witches' prophesies and his wife egging him on.

[Dreamwoven]

I agree with this.

[siobankelley]

1) When Shakespeare wrote the play, YES, witches did exist. They church and general population believed that they existed and were agents of Satan as much as they believed in God. They hung/burned them all the time. 2) James I had just taken the throne. The line of Banquo described and produced to Macbeth on his second visit to the Witches, establishes James I right to the throne. Also, James was really big on the occult and studied it extensively. Perhaps why he initiated the King James Bible. 3) Act I scene iv. Witches tell Macbeth he WILL be Cawdor and King. The news of his promotion to Thane of Cawdor comes roughly only 60 lines later in Act One Scene iv. 4) Act One scene v. Lady Macbeth, after reading his letter the second line after says..."yet I do fear they nature; It is too full o' the milk of human kindness TO catch the nearest way: thou wouldst be great; Art NOT WITHOUT AMBITION; BUT WITHOUT THE ILLNESS SHOULD ATTEND IT. This indicates that Macbeth can be corrupted, but doesn't have the heart to usurp much less kill the King. 5) Act One scene one Bloody soldier bears witness to Macbeth/Banquo basically saving the day and winning the battle, thereby acknowledging their superior skills on the battlefield. Back in 11th Century Scotland, Kingship was not done by either Divinity or Primogenitor. Scottish Kings back then had notoriously short lived lives, were generally killed on the battlefield and were chosen based on military skill both strategy and experience. Macbeth has every reason to assume that he will be chosen since primogenitor is not in play and he's clearly the most qualified under that system to replace Duncan who is now too old and feeble to be on the battlefield any longer, according to Scottish laws. 6) Back in Act One Scene v: Lady Macbeth doe in fact try to summon spirits from the deep to make her have the steeliness and strength her husband lacks to kill Duncan, who clearly is not going to retire, seems to be willing to die of old age and leave his son Malcolm in charge afterwards. I think all of that points to Macbeth literally being seduced and infected by the Witches. And Lady Macbeth has certainly infected herself, that is what Shakespeare's audience would have believed.