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danah
06-19-2011, 08:04 PM
Hello,



i wonder, some people chooses to writer and express themselves in non-native language rather than their native language! Why?

sometimes, i think that because the language is influenced by the environment, surroundings and background of its country.

For example, we see some people who write in English because they feel free when they write in English unlike their native one (let's say Arabic) which is affected by the oppression, restriction in law, and mental colonization! - just example

So, this means it is about mental process; when the mind of one language is oppressed, it will become as unconsciously habit that he can't express him\her self in that language! So, he\ she turns to another language.


Is that what i have said is true? Do you agree with it? Do you have any other interpretation?



Thank you... waiting your responses

JCamilo
06-20-2011, 10:49 AM
No, it is not true. You express naturally on any language you have grasp. Multi-language people can easily express by both by instinct at the same momment, it is more related to experience than anything else. If you go to restaurant and it links to italian food, the idea of food can bring it, it is not just by opressing sittuations. (Like, using words in german while recalling when you are a war prisioner).

By the way, you should be carefull: arabian is not the language of the opressor, colonization etc. English is. A Muslim does not find the language that is linked with their holy work to be opressing, it is actually much natural to them. The way you expressed your example sounds like downright prejudice. One may get nasty answers over it.

danah
06-21-2011, 01:23 PM
No, it is not true. You express naturally on any language you have grasp. Multi-language people can easily express by both by instinct at the same momment, it is more related to experience than anything else. If you go to restaurant and it links to italian food, the idea of food can bring it, it is not just by opressing sittuations. (Like, using words in german while recalling when you are a war prisioner).

By the way, you should be carefull: arabian is not the language of the opressor, colonization etc. English is. A Muslim does not find the language that is linked with their holy work to be opressing, it is actually much natural to them. The way you expressed your example sounds like downright prejudice. One may get nasty answers over it.



i apologize.. i am afraid that i didn't explain myself clear:
i mean in Arab there are certain topics that are not allowed to talk about (for example politics, or emotions sense some of their societies are conservative) and because of that ,you may find them express themselves in another language more freely when they talk about love for example... This is what i meant by saying oppressed.. may be i used the wrong term.

i used arabia as an example and not stereotyping them; i might be wrong, but i want to clarify my point through an example.

JCamilo
06-21-2011, 01:30 PM
Don't forget, those arabians are throwing out dictadors using arabian to communicate among themselves.

You may find, like Jewish that at somepoint spoke in jewish to exclude others from their communication when they were persecuted, you may find the spanish population of USA using more and more spanish to increase their identidy, you will find the criollo in Argentina to distance then from spain: usually the outside language is the source of domain and oppression, not the natural language.