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prickly_pete
05-28-2011, 11:20 AM
What is gained by syntactically re-aranging words from their normal word or in poetry?

For instance:

Beguiled by fair idolatresses, fell
To idols foul

Why not just say foul idols? What's the purpose hear behind changing word order?

Panglossian
05-29-2011, 07:13 AM
To me it's like a little special effect which creates a more imposing, grandiose feel. It's almost like a serious forefinger is raised. - Does *Mission Impossible* sounds more commanding than *Impossible Mission* ... probably.

JBI
05-29-2011, 08:34 AM
Because the repetition of the sounds of words in different places sounds better. Also, the repetition of the same structure, as a contrast with the current would put the idols too similarly placed which would cause trouble as the structure would feel too rigid.

Plus, the reversal of words acts as an (probably unintentional) pun to the flip of affect - hammering the contrast, fair, foul, by flipping, causing a transposition.

hillwalker
05-29-2011, 04:39 PM
Read it out loud - notice the difference?

'fell to idols foul' has a natural grace, and the repetition of the F and L at the start and end of the phrase is a fine example of alliteration; what generally separates poetry from prose.

H

hallaig
05-30-2011, 09:06 AM
What is gained by syntactically re-aranging words from their normal word or in poetry?


Your poetry gets to sound archaic and anachronistic, and you're overcome by an irresistable impulse to write sub-arthurian flapdoodle.