shinystitches
02-16-2011, 03:43 AM
Hi all,
I'm currently working on a translation and analysis of a segment of Robert Mannyng's "The Chronicle" Part I, and was wondering if any of you have some familiarity with the poem, as it's extremely obscure and I'm having some issues generating enough ideas. Note I'm absolutely not asking for someone to essentially "do my homework", but just hoping to generate some discussion and gain some new insight.
I found the translation to be fairly direct for the most part, but some bits continue to allude me (bolded):
If žou wille alle že manere,
whi & on what manere,
to telle že, sir, gif žou me leue
žat žou ne žin with me greue. (7217-7220)
...ne so genderand, ne so plentyue,
ne so graciouse žrod to žriue,
as we ere of our kynde,
in no lond salle men fynde;
ne so selcouthly to gendre,
ne haf so many childre tendre
& waxen men, women inouh,
žat alle žare duelle ne mouh. (7225-7232)
Any suggestions? I've been consulting with various Middle English dictionaries and they have helped somewhat, but since in many cases there are no literal or direct translations it makes putting the sentence into modern English with conventional grammar a challenge.
Besides the translation, I've found that the poem sits in a sort of transition between Old and Middle English, which makes sense given the time period (it was written in the early 14th c). Some Old English orthographic symbols like the thorn (ž) remain prominent in the text, while others are absent, such as /ę/. Similarly, the letter yogh (ȝ) is no longer being used as /g/ and /w/, but is still being used as /y/ in the case of ȝe and ȝenge (young). These are some of the most obvious changes, others are a bit harder to point out.
Anyway I'd really love some feedback to work through the translation and discuss it. Thank you in advance!
I'm currently working on a translation and analysis of a segment of Robert Mannyng's "The Chronicle" Part I, and was wondering if any of you have some familiarity with the poem, as it's extremely obscure and I'm having some issues generating enough ideas. Note I'm absolutely not asking for someone to essentially "do my homework", but just hoping to generate some discussion and gain some new insight.
I found the translation to be fairly direct for the most part, but some bits continue to allude me (bolded):
If žou wille alle že manere,
whi & on what manere,
to telle že, sir, gif žou me leue
žat žou ne žin with me greue. (7217-7220)
...ne so genderand, ne so plentyue,
ne so graciouse žrod to žriue,
as we ere of our kynde,
in no lond salle men fynde;
ne so selcouthly to gendre,
ne haf so many childre tendre
& waxen men, women inouh,
žat alle žare duelle ne mouh. (7225-7232)
Any suggestions? I've been consulting with various Middle English dictionaries and they have helped somewhat, but since in many cases there are no literal or direct translations it makes putting the sentence into modern English with conventional grammar a challenge.
Besides the translation, I've found that the poem sits in a sort of transition between Old and Middle English, which makes sense given the time period (it was written in the early 14th c). Some Old English orthographic symbols like the thorn (ž) remain prominent in the text, while others are absent, such as /ę/. Similarly, the letter yogh (ȝ) is no longer being used as /g/ and /w/, but is still being used as /y/ in the case of ȝe and ȝenge (young). These are some of the most obvious changes, others are a bit harder to point out.
Anyway I'd really love some feedback to work through the translation and discuss it. Thank you in advance!