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virginiawang
01-18-2010, 05:22 AM
Now I am encountering difficulties with grammar, which, I find, does not list down all the possiblities in which my mind works. Will anyone please tell me how you feel about the sentence? " Not until yesterday had I arrived at a decision to read more, when I was struck by a grammatical mistake I made."
I didn't necessarily wish to clarify which act of the two went first. Is it that people don't usually put not until phrase before a past perfect tense clause?

chrismythoi
01-18-2010, 08:06 AM
if i understand you correctly you should say,
'i was struck by a grammatical error i had made, and yesterday decided to read more.'

Virgil
01-18-2010, 09:54 AM
Now I am encountering difficulties with grammar, which, I find, does not list down all the possiblities in which my mind works. Will anyone please tell me how you feel about the sentence? " Not until yesterday had I arrived at a decision to read more, when I was struck by a grammatical mistake I made."
I didn't necessarily wish to clarify which act of the two went first. Is it that people don't usually put not until phrase before a past perfect tense clause?

I like the setence the way it is.

virginiawang
01-19-2010, 08:05 AM
Thank you, Virgil. I am gald you like my sentence.

caddy_caddy
01-19-2010, 08:23 AM
I think your sentence is grammatically correct .But you are mistaken between the past perfect and the use of the auxiliary verb(had) for emphasis .
"Had I arrived " is not past perfect ; it is simple past that goes with yesterday and "had" to emphasise the action.

I hope I helped you.

MarkBastable
01-19-2010, 08:40 AM
No, it is past perfect - or pluperfect, as it's also known.

Turn it around....

I had not arrived at a decision until yesterday....

What may be misleading you is the negative, and the use of yesterday, which confuses the chronological viewpoint, as it were.

So take out the negative and make the relative point in time more clear.

I had arrived at a decision the previous day.

The 'had' isn't emphatic - it's just the auxiliary of the pluperfect.

If the verb was 'did' then you'd have a point.

Not until yesterday did I arrive at a decision....

...which becomes....

I did not arrive at a decision until yesterday...

That's just a standard negative form of the simple past, but if it were not negative you might say....

I did arrive at a decision yesterday....


...and in that context, the 'did' would be emphatic...

Dinkleberry2010
01-19-2010, 04:17 PM
I think the way the statement is made is somwhat confusing in that the two phrases seem to be unrelated. Here is a suggestion: "Yesterday a grammatical mistake I made struck me, so I made a decision to read more."

caddy_caddy
01-19-2010, 07:47 PM
She should have used the simple past with yesterday.For that reason I said it's not the past perfect. That what was im my mind.Moreover,I thought she wanted to emphasis the action.

But isn't correct to say: Not until yesterday Did I arrived ...?

MarkBastable
01-19-2010, 07:52 PM
Sh

But isn't correct to say: Not until yesterday Did I arrived ...?

No. You've got two past participles there.

Not until yesterday did I arrive...

That works, grammatically, though it's kinda stodgy. In other words, it's syntactically correct, but stylistically a bit clunky and archaic.

Whifflingpin
02-18-2010, 07:39 PM
" Not until yesterday had I arrived at a decision to read more, when I was struck by a grammatical mistake I made."

"Not until yesterday, when I was struck by a grammatical mistake I had made, did I arrive at a decision to read more."

At least the "when ..." needs to go with "yesterday." Otherwise there is an ambiguity as to whether the discovery of the mistake was the cause or the result of the decision to read more.