A Question of Nomenclature

[*Classic*Charm*]

I've been wondering as I read, why are the upper class characters identified as 'Prince' and 'Princess'? Is there something that gets lost in translation?

I'm just curious!

Thank you!

[*Classic*Charm*]

Anybody?:(

[weltanschauung]

i just always assumed that the majority of the upper classes (the "court") in europe were always related to the feudal royalty and consequently inherited the nobility titles. the royal families would have many children and all of them would inherit the princess/prince title, who would consequently pass it on to their children. even in proust you can see princes and princessess everywhere without a kingdom.

[Gladys]

In some Dostoevsky novels, more than one character has the title 'Prince' without overt contact with royalty.

[bazarov]

From wikipedia:


In the Russian system, knyaz, translated as "prince", is the highest degree of official nobility. Members of older dynasties that were eventually subjected to the Russian imperial dynasty were also accorded the title of knyaz -- sometimes after first being allowed to use the higher title of tsarevich (e.g. the Princes Gruzinsky and Sibirsky. Rurikid branches used the knyaz title also after they were succeeded by the Romanovs as the Russian imperial dynasty.

It changes from nation to nation in Europe. Prince Myshkin from Idiot is not like Prince Harry from United Kingdom; he just have a high nobility status, but actually nothing with reigning dynasty.

[*Classic*Charm*]

That's what I thought. Thank you all! :)