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cipherdecoy
06-11-2008, 09:04 PM
Why doesn't he use apostrophes in certain areas of his novels?

Same thing for Cormac Mccarthy's The Road. (Not sure about his other works)

mayneverhave
06-11-2008, 10:12 PM
It's a stylistic device. Faulkner's unique use of punctuation is important to his literary method and his uniquiness in literature.

Part of the reason there are few apostrophes is because he often utilizes the stream of consciousness technique, which tends to manifest itself as a string of long fragments of sentences and often unassociated (at least directly) thoughts that represent the inner workings of the human mind.

Often time we do not think in completely clear and structured sentences, and thus Faulkner's style accurately represents the human consciousness. This is especially true in Quentin's section of The Sound and the Fury, where Quentin's rapidly deteriorating grip on reality is represented by Faulkner's oddly punctuated, often rambiling narrative style - A Perfect Match!

Also, as in Absalom, Absalom! Faulkner use of long, adverb loaded sentences is a poetic tendency. Faulkner's prose is the antithesis of Hemingways (to make what I'm saying clearer). Where Hemingway uses few descriptive words and writes in a terse style, Faulkner's long, poetic, style is often what people admire most about him. Reading Faulkner's prose is like dipping into poetry in novel form.

chasestalling
06-11-2008, 10:28 PM
He is definitely not the model for a freshman composition class, much less for a remedial writing one.

Virgil
06-11-2008, 10:28 PM
I think it makes the writing more intense, more raw, more colloquial. It charges up the language, don't you think?