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caitlin123
05-20-2008, 04:44 AM
hey guys :)
does anyone know how the poem "ode on a grecian urn" was significant to its writer: keats? why did he write it? how does it affirm keats views on god/religion, society and major life events (ie. death/birth)......what are keats views on those issues??? LOL struggling :(

thnx =]

TheGrandMoose
07-24-2008, 08:04 AM
Hi Caitlin,

Truth be told I've never really thought too much about Keats' 'Ode' in those terms - I've generally viewed it as an expression of his idea of Negative Capability - the stock definition of which seems to be 'the human capacity not to know', but I personally prefer to define it as 'the appreciation of things as they are', i.e. rather than having a need to know and understand them in rational, complex/intellectual way. This is embodied by the famous concluding lines, 'beauty is truth, truth beauty, that is all ye know on earth and all ye need to know.'
I think Keats saw God as expressing Himself through beauty, and so He may be seen/appreciated in the simple beauty of nature.
The urn itself is also richly symbolic of a number of things - memory, desire and beauty - fulfillment and satisfaction is found in the desire for things not had (hope and faith, for example) rather than things that are had. These things, not had, are experienced both through memory (longing for times gone by, e.g. nostalgia) and imagination. This is embodied in the line 'heard melodies are sweet, but those unheard are sweeter'.
There is much more in this beautiful, rich poem, which is one of my favourite poems.

Anyway, hope that helps - I can write more if you like, but I've a notion this response is a little late - sorry about that, I only came across this site a few days ago! (Great to see a fellow Aussie as well!)

blazeofglory
07-24-2008, 12:06 PM
I have read it earlier and I recall it is something in praise of ancient Greece.