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pherex
01-22-2007, 09:05 AM
We have to discuss this question in our next test:

After around 1750, the discussion of literature began increasingly to focus on poems, novels and plays. What consequences could this observation have for our discussion of literature and for the way we approach poems, novels and plays from before and from after that period?

Any suggestions?

Thanks.
Cheers
pherex

mousemouse
01-22-2007, 01:29 PM
First of all: Eerh... what was the focus on before 1750 if not poems, novels and plays???
But anyway I think it lies in the question asked, that the answer could have something to do with intertextuality. An increased focus on other work as opposed to style, or more theoretical reading could lead to comparative redaings og works of fiction. This could lead to more intertextual passages og intertextual interpretations of the poems, novels and plays.
hope it helps, but I think it's a strange question