View Full Version : Does anyone know why...
Izzy_140
01-01-2007, 09:38 AM
in novels written by authors such as the bronte's and jane austin, why they wrote place names as -shire rather than writing the actual place name?
thanks in advance to everyone who replies :)
/zzy
Whifflingpin
01-01-2007, 10:10 AM
Do you mean, a) Nottinghamshire, rather than Nottingham -
or b) -shire rather than Nottinghamshire?
If a) then it is because Nottingham is a city, and Nottinghamshire means the county of Nottingham, i.e. an area of land of which Nottingham is the major city (or the land governed by the Earl [Count] of Nottingham.)
If b) then it was to make it seem more realistic - the author was saying, "I cannot tell you exactly where this is, because if I do you may know the people I'm talking about."
Later writers commonly avoided using blankshire by inventing a name, from which people could easily guess the place that they were talking about. Most famously, all the Wessex names in the Hardy novels; but many other Victorians and Edwardians did the same.
Izzy_140
01-01-2007, 10:27 AM
thanks :D
i guess i wasn't very clear - i meant b)
thank you for helping me :)
/zzy
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