Do you think that in Romeo and Juliet, Shakespeare portrays a world wholly defined by opposition wherein even the purest of loves not only is unable to overcome opposition but in actuality defies.
Personally I do not believe this is so because if Romeo and Juliet's deep passionate love eventually ended this family feud of the Montagues and Capulets and how can we say that purest of loves cannot overcome opposition when the evidences are clear?
Sorry if I may seem foolish or silly but my English teacher wants me to write an essay on a topic that I don't believe in so I really need some help. Plus the fact that I am still very young and I have not seen the world as much as others in order to define love for myself.
Please, if you have any opinions that support the original statement or ones that defies it, post them.
Thanks.


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