We are meant to solicit answers to a question for my comparative lit class, so here is one that you might have a take on: While Tolkein focuses heavily on the determinant nature of lineage and family connection (for example, orcs are born orcs & are therefore evil), The Hobbit is devoid of heterosexualization that would render this device believable--is this because sexualization was seen by Tolkein as a choice which conflicted with his determinist framework or because the essential maleness of his work masks underlying homosociality?