Question regarding the soliloquy on Act 3, Scene 1, Lines 49 to 71

[manorguy]

Hello dear fellows!

I'll probably have some more questions, but here's one:
Why does Macbeth use plural: "Our fears..."?

Thanks for the responders!

[Pompey Bum]

Welcome manorguy. It's because he is now king, so he has adopted the royal "we," also known as the majestic plural. This is a nosism soverigns traditionally use, presumably because they speak for more than just themselves. Hope that helped.

[manorguy]

That is helpful, and interesting.
At the beginning I thought that by using this "our", Macbeth is referring to himself and to his wife .
Thank you!