Results 1 to 3 of 3

Thread: Question regarding the soliloquy on Act 3, Scene 1, Lines 49 to 71

  1. #1
    Registered User
    Join Date
    Mar 2015
    Posts
    2

    Question Question regarding the soliloquy on Act 3, Scene 1, Lines 49 to 71

    Hello dear fellows!

    I'll probably have some more questions, but here's one:
    Why does Macbeth use plural: "Our fears..."?

    Thanks for the responders!

  2. #2
    The Gnu Normal Pompey Bum's Avatar
    Join Date
    Oct 2014
    Location
    Uncanny Valley
    Posts
    5,364
    Welcome manorguy. It's because he is now king, so he has adopted the royal "we," also known as the majestic plural. This is a nosism soverigns traditionally use, presumably because they speak for more than just themselves. Hope that helped.
    And this from a man in a bunny suit.

  3. #3
    Registered User
    Join Date
    Mar 2015
    Posts
    2
    That is helpful, and interesting.
    At the beginning I thought that by using this "our", Macbeth is referring to himself and to his wife .
    Thank you!

Similar Threads

  1. Replies: 1
    Last Post: 02-15-2008, 01:21 PM
  2. Soliloquy in Act II, Scene II
    By NaugyShake12 in forum Hamlet
    Replies: 11
    Last Post: 12-14-2006, 12:41 AM
  3. Question about Act II, Scene 9 - help by 6/28?
    By keyboardwizard in forum Merchant of Venice
    Replies: 1
    Last Post: 06-24-2006, 10:30 AM
  4. Benvolio's Speach (Act 3 Scene 1 - Lines 143-166)
    By Daniel Walck in forum Romeo and Juliet
    Replies: 3
    Last Post: 05-24-2005, 06:07 PM
  5. Paradise Lost: Book III (lines 325-245) Question
    By Newman in forum General Literature
    Replies: 3
    Last Post: 06-26-2004, 02:32 PM

Tags for this Thread

Posting Permissions

  • You may not post new threads
  • You may not post replies
  • You may not post attachments
  • You may not edit your posts
  •