Grammar Questions by sb70012

[Mohammad Ahmad]

1- since \\ I have been here ....since ....the end of June... Why since?
It includes the duration from June to now....i.e. You are there from June up to now.
You can use ( from) but since is grammatically better

[sb70012]

1. I have been here from the end of June. (Incorrect)
2. I have been here since the end of June. (correct)
3. I will be here from the end of June. (correct)
4. I was here from the end of June. (not sure)
5. I had been here from the end of June. (not sure)

Source: self made grammar question

Hello,
I decided to start a new thread about "from" because I want to know more answers. because sometimes, even native English speakers give different answers. I will be happy if dear native English speakers give their opinions about those 5 sentences.

Note: I searched for it in the forum but the threads didn't help me.

Would you please comment on number 4 and 5? What's your opinion about them? Are they both correct?

Thank you

[sb70012]

89. Walking …. the city after dark is not on the whole a good idea.

a)along
b)through (Answer Key)
c)alone
d)across

Source: text book

Hello,
Can "across" be correct as well?

Thank you

[YesNo]

The b choice seems like the only one that I would say. Option c doesn't work. Option a makes me ask along what are you walking? Option d seems like a possibility, but I would normally use that to express the idea of walking across something like a field not through a whole city. There are more literate people here who probably know whether d would be understandable.

[mona amon]

'Across' sounds funny, as if you are a giant striding across, without having to walk through streets and so on. You can look up 'across' in the dictionary for examples of how it is used, like here for instance - http://www.thefreedictionary.com/across

[OrphanPip]

Across implies passing through something along the way from one point to another. Someone could conceivable walk across the city at night, but it's a bit awkward because it means they walked from one side of the city to the other side of it.

[Mohammad Ahmad]

89. Walking …. the city after dark is not on the whole a good idea.

a)along
b)through (Answer Key)
c)alone
d)across

Source: text book

Hello,
Can "across" be correct as well?

Thank you

Your sentence itself is incorrect, it lacks to the verb to emphasis the reason, i.e. to say: Walking ..through....... the city after the dark isn't on the whole, is a good idea.
walking through the city after dark isn't on the whole..., all the clause is subject, and of course, it is a non-finite adverbial clause....

[Mohammad Ahmad]

Why do you ask the same question, you just want to spam the forum!
2- You may know that as we are translators, we have learned the English grammar more than many native speakers themselves.
I surely have seen many posts in this forum lacking to the minimum degree of the grammar.....
Take this link perhaps you can find it useful:
http://www.differencebetween.com/dif...e-and-vs-from/

[Dono]

The correct sequence is as follows:
I was here after the end of June.
I was here following the end of June.
I was here staring at the end of June.
June has filed a restraining order.
The end of April is also quite nice.
I am here following the end of April.

[mona amon]

1. I have been here from the end of June. (Incorrect)
2. I have been here since the end of June. (correct)
3. I will be here from the end of June. (correct)
4. I was here from the end of June. (not sure)
5. I had been here from the end of June. (not sure)

Source: self made grammar question

Hello,
I decided to start a new thread about "from" because I want to know more answers. because sometimes, even native English speakers give different answers. I will be happy if dear native English speakers give their opinions about those 5 sentences.

Note: I searched for it in the forum but the threads didn't help me.

Would you please comment on number 4 and 5? What's your opinion about them? Are they both correct?

Thank you

Hi sb! As far as I know -

1. I have been here from the end of June. (Incorrect) - 'I have been' - present perfect continuous, so 'since' is the best word to use here.

3. I will be here from the end of June. (correct) - I still feel it is better to specify the duration. "I will be here from the end of June till the beginning of August"...

4. I was here from the end of June. (not sure) - same as above. When you use 'from' you have to specify the duration.

5. I had been here from the end of June. (not sure) - "I had been" - pluperfect, so your sentence requires more information, including duration. "I had been here for a couple of months last year, before I went to Copenhagen."

[Mohammad Ahmad]

Hello dear all,

Once I asked this question of a native English speaker:

Are these both correct?

Which one of these is correct?
Which one of these are correct?

********************************

In answer she told me: The first one (is) is correct but you should reverse the sentence and say:

"Of these which one is correct?"

Is she right? Is it needed to reverse it? If I don't reverse it, can it be true as well or not?


Thanks in advance.

Let me return to the fifth primary class, but no matter, to answer all these questions since all of your posts pertaining to grammar are gathered into one topic..

In English there is something ( article, modifier, premodifier, pronoun, demonstrative, etc...) often we called, the anaphora & the cataphora.
The anaphora refers to a word comes before and the cataphora refers for a word comes after.
The ( one) itself is pronoun.
Now to your question:
When you ask: Which one of theses\ those\ is correct? What does your question imply? Basically your question is about this "one" though all of these to know whether it is the correct or not... Is It OK?
Then the verb is to which one belong? To these or to the one? Of course it refers to the one, and moreover the arrangement of the English sentence is:
Subject ( S) + verb ( V) + complement ( CO) Viz: SVC

[sb70012]

Hello,

I have asked a confusing question in almost three different forums but the answers are not the same. That's why I'm still confused. I want to ask it here and see what you think about that. This is my question:

Once our teacher told us (alone-asleep-ashamed-awake-upset-ill-well-afloat-afraid-alight-alike-alive) can not be before a noun.
Do you agree with him or not?
For example:
an upset man - an asleep baby - an alone boy - an ashamed girl - an awake man - an ill man - a well man -
an afraid man - an afloat ship - an alight lamp - an alike man - an alive man -

These are the answers I have received from native English speakers:

Answer 1: only "well man" or "well woman" exist.
Answer 2: "alone (alone keystone) - afraid - ashamed - upset - ill - well" can come before a noun.
Answer 3: "the ashamed girl" or "the upset man" exist but not with article "an".
Answer 4: Yes I do agree with your teacher.
Answer 5: "an upset man - an ashamed girl - an ill man - a well man" exist
Answer 6: Yes I agree with your teacher.


You see? Answers are different. May I know what your opinion is?

The reason I started to ask this question was because of this picture:

Please do see it: http://upload7.ir/imgs/2014-02/41176760638392730136.jpg

Source 1 : http://www.mygrammarlab.com/assets/d...b_Advanced.pdf
Source 2 : http://global.oup.com/booksites/cont...mple_pages.pdf