I read that you would be hard pressed to find strict meter in Chauncer's Canterbury Tales (written near the end of the 14th century), simply due to the change in the English language over time - after all, they are written in what is called middle English. This makes complete sense. Though, I've often wondered why it is understood as fact that the Odyssey, Iliad and Aeneid are written in dactylic hexameter, as they are so ancient (well surpassing the age of Chauncer) and naturally language progresses so rapidly. I could understand academics having a firm grasp of Homeric Greek or Classical Latin (through literature) in terms of what is on paper, but it defies me how they could have an understanding of the phonic elements upon with attributing a certain meter to a poem depend. How is this so?
Thank you for offering your knowledge and time.