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Thread: Universality and Literature

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    Bibliophile JBI's Avatar
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    Universality and Literature

    From Mortalterror on this thread: http://www.online-literature.com/for...t=39806&page=7

    In order to stop sidetracking the thread, I decided to post my response in a new one, to continue the discussion:

    JBI wants literature to be words and symbols without meaning because it allows him to dismiss content out of hand. He's probably reading a lot of Saussure, Chomsky, Derrida and guys like that right now for a modern criticism class, and in contemporary criticism there's a large movement to make meaning plastic or reinterpretable. If he wants to get good grades then his opinions naturally have to be aligned with those of the people he's reading. He has to minimize the universal, downplay all previous theories, and make a big deal about signifiers and signified. Ceci n'est pas un critique.

    By focusing our primary value upon the particular rather than the general attributes we are actually privileging an interpretation or point of view. In this case, the position is very clearly an elitist view of art as it seeks to minimize the importance of less finely executed works of art which happen to share the same themes as great works or art. It may not be intentional, but the emphasis of language to the exclusion of content has that effect. It discredits less polished, more popular forms of art. It delegitimizes the masses experience, monopolizes the power (who gets to interpret, or create), brands less crafted works as different, other, alien, pretends various people are not enjoying the same thing. This bastardization of the popular experience is disenfranchisement, a negation of the pleasures regular people experience from reading, framing aesthetics as either right or wrong. The populace says, “Look here, we like the same things. What we read is more or less the same.” But the elitist says, “No, it is our differences which matter. There is no common bond. We do not enjoy the same things. Our enjoyment is different. Our books are different. We are different.”

    If we admit that content is primary and language secondary, or if they were equal, or if perhaps there were such a thing as a universal then that would mean that the popular would share a common ground with the elite and would have to be judged on a gradient rather than a good/bad mutually exlusive dichotomy. Back in March we had this discussion on the Byron, Shelley, or Keats? Thread, and there also I made the case for theme, subject, and content. StLukesGuild and Petrarch's Love illustrated their position with the example of Arthur Brooke's Romeus and Juliet. They claimed that what made Shakespeare's version better was his skillful handling of language. What they failed to address, and what I was too tired to point out, was that although Brooke's Romeus and Juliet was inferior to Shakespeare's Romeo and Juliet, the content probably raised it above the main of Brooke's own oeuvre.

    JBI's stand has a second effect in that it allows him to raise works of art with unworthy themes, minimal content, obscure application, and oblique language, which wallow in narcisistic eccentricity to the level of greatness by virtue of their individual diction. Case in point, his mention of Finnegans Wake. There is no subject more frivolous than that of sophistry, the splitting of hairs, and disection of language. Authors who make words their subject are prone to the worst abuses of language and self-conscious navel gazing. The authors he would raise from oblivion to the heights of Mount Parnassus are the ignoble pygmies who would gild a lily, polish a turd, and pen beautiful words in a cause for which it would be waste of breath to speak. “These same people also think themselves clever if one has to be clever to understand them, as Diomedes wittily remarked, and prefer to write something that will result in amazement rather than comprehension(Erasmus, De Copia).”

    Finally, JBI and StLukesGuild are fond of saying that literature is not translatable. They quote Frost and say that “Poetry is what get's lost in translation.” This is one more view that can be extrapolated from their position. If the phonemes are more important to you than the enthymemes, then of course you are going to say that nothing is translatable.


    Language isn't translatable, and the more complex it is, the more it relies on rhetorical devices, the less translatable it seems to be. The reason is not that language has no meaning, as you insist in stating that I got from Derrida, but it is that it has no meaning unless someone knows the meaning. The meaning is brought by the reader, not by anyone else. Depending on what the reader brings, the result of the read will be different.

    That is why we notice things on rereads that we missed the first time - because we know more. That is why we read something and get different reactions. It's the fact that the text contains things within it that challenge our memories, and what we know about a) the world, and the author and his world, b) ourselves, and c) the text.

    I personally see no problem with judging literature without acknowledging that it is on the grounds of a universal truth. The concept of a universal truth, or a fundamental value to a text is perhaps the most rhetoric, elitist enterprise there is. Just look at all the Alan Blooms of this world, and the whole neo-con group, who preach watered down F. R. Leavis about the "moral" being the center of the text, or some other junk.

    Language is clearly the fundamental facet about literature. It is what literature literally is, a written form of language.

    And being language, literature is subject to the limits of language, being that only someone who can understand the certain language, is able to understand the text.

    If I cannot read Arabic, and am not even able to speak it, how am I able to even begin to read texts in it? If I do not understand a culture, how can I understand its art.

    Even those who claim to understand cultures usually just absorb them in a watered down form. For instance, I read French Canadian literature, but am I able to understand it? No, not really. First there is the language issue, and second there is the context issue. I try to understand the translations of the texts of course, but am I able to? No. Is someone like Etienne more capable of reading Hubert Aquin than I am? Of course. He understands the French, and lives in French Canada.


    But what it really comes down to, is whether or not something "universal" is able to be captured by the text. I think that is a rather silly notion. The texts themselves aren't even able to be read universally, kind of defeating the idea.

    But when we get to aesthetics, I don't think it is the "universality" of the text that really makes us enjoy them. After all, we must remember the history of literature. Plato himself accuses poets of being liars. In terms of view, the history of poetry hasn't been to uncover a "truth" but merely to entertain.

    The language of metaphor itself isn't a "truth". Anything explained by metaphor isn't actually explained. But one may, for instance, simply take delight in it. One can simply "suspend their disbelieve" as Keats put it, and for a while believe in the fiction, the contradiction.

    It is not elitist to say that the concept of a "Fundamental truth" is a) a lie, and b) not the central preoccupation of great literature. When it comes down to it, if something is so universal, why would we even need a writer to tell us about it. And even so, why would we care, seeing as how most people don't enjoy reading about physics facts, even though those contain "truths".

    There are things that remain true in our society, as our societies are shaped by traditions, and our pasts. But that doesn't mean works that are truthful, or somehow more truthful are better.

    Homer has cyclopes and Gods.
    Shakespeare has talking Ghosts.

    Would you suggest we remove these things from the texts? Of course not. They are part of the text, and add in one way or another to the enjoyment of the text.

    I think one of the ways good literature functions is on its ability to inspire more than one reaction, more than one interpretation. That doesn't mean both are right, or both are wrong, simply that both are within the text's ability. That's why irony is so interesting. It allows us to hear one thing, and think another. That is why there is so much contemporary scholarship on metonymy, and its inconclusiveness. Because quite frankly, these things allow the reader to take them wherever they really want.

    But on translation. Find me one translation that can capture, lets say, Homer. There are clear differences between all the major contemporary ones, Fitzgerlad and Fagles or Lattimore, or whichever other. The simple inability to recreate the metre is enough to prove that translation can never accurately recreate a work. But we can stretch it further. Can we recreate idiom? Can we recreate the sound of words, the feel of words, the order of words, or the overall feel of them. Of course not. I cannot recreate even an Esperanto writer into English. You can't even recreate, for instance, Chaucer into modern English. It isn't possible, you can only create an image.

    That doesn't mean translations are bad, it means they aren't the original. I think most translators will agree that much of the original is lost in translation. Perhaps that can be good - I personally prefer the King James to the Archaic Hebrew Old Testament. But does it matter? No. The point is, it doesn't translate. Trust me, I've read the original, and it's not quite there in translation.

    Do you think Hemingway, for instance, would be Hemingway in Italian? No, he would be an Italian Hemingway.


    Actually, lets take it further. Is Hemingway what he was to his original audience what he is now? IS Shakespeare? Is even Thomas Pynchon? Or some other still living writer? No. They are not. In fact, it is the ability of these works to adapt to new visions which contributes to their stature as great. The point though, is that the works are able to change.

    But on the notion of elitism. All opinions of good and bad are elitist.


    Take this for example:



    There is no "universal meaning" to this portrait. It simply looks pleasing. So is with literature. The words sound good, what the responses we have to the words feel good. Would someone from some culture perhaps not like this painting? Possibly.

    But the true beauty, I would argue, lies in the form. Raphael was a master of the form - a master of the portrait, the same way Tennyson was a master of the Poem. It is not for their universal appeal that we like them, but for what they can do:

    Break, break, break,
    On thy cold gray stones, O Sea!
    And I would that my tongue could utter
    The thoughts that arise in me.

    It is the form of expression - the way that which has been expressed is being expressed. Poetry itself functions, I would argue, as one long question on what it means to be creative - to have a creative impulse.

    In that sense, one could argue poems about death deal with a question of expressing the feelings of death, not of death. Death is universal, but the expression is a mere form - a vision.
    Last edited by JBI; 12-04-2008 at 11:34 PM.

  2. #2
    Artist and Bibliophile stlukesguild's Avatar
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    Mortal Terror- JBI wants literature to be words and symbols without meaning because it allows him to dismiss content out of hand. He's probably reading a lot of Saussure, Chomsky, Derrida and guys like that right now for a modern criticism class, and in contemporary criticism there's a large movement to make meaning plastic or reinterpretable. If he wants to get good grades then his opinions naturally have to be aligned with those of the people he's reading. He has to minimize the universal, downplay all previous theories, and make a big deal about signifiers and signified. Ceci n'est pas un critique.

    SLG- I'll make no comments about where JBI is or is not coming from. That is for him to say. I will note that I have very little use for the sort of criticism that you mention... and had even less respect for it when I was confronted with it during my undergrad studies (and yes, some art majors did take classes on literature).

    By focusing our primary value upon the particular rather than the general attributes we are actually privileging an interpretation or point of view. In this case, the position is very clearly an elitist view of art as it seeks to minimize the importance of less finely executed works of art which happen to share the same themes as great works or art.

    My own position is admittedly "elitist" if by "elitist" we denote a position which places the aesthetic pleasure of a work primary. I suppose that such does lead to a position of placing form over content... but I would argue that the two are intrinsically intertwined. What I would suggest is that content or theme alone without the form to match is nothing. There are endless works of art... paintings, novels, poems (shall I again select Maya Angelou as an example... or perhaps To Kill a Mockingbird?) that convey themes that are certainly of great merit... that I certainly empathize with... and yet as a work of art they fall short due to aesthetic short-comings.

    It may not be intentional, but the emphasis of language to the exclusion of content has that effect. It discredits less polished, more popular forms of art. It delegitimizes the masses experience, monopolizes the power (who gets to interpret, or create), brands less crafted works as different, other, alien, pretends various people are not enjoying the same thing. This bastardization of the popular experience is disenfranchisement, a negation of the pleasures regular people experience from reading, framing aesthetics as either right or wrong. The populace says, “Look here, we like the same things. What we read is more or less the same.” But the elitist says, “No, it is our differences which matter. There is no common bond. We do not enjoy the same things. Our enjoyment is different. Our books are different. We are different.”

    I don't think that a preference for works of the highest aesthetic merit need be seen as elitist in this way whatsoever. In a way I would say that such accusations made by MortalTerror are but a marvelous use of rhetoric to suggest his own camaraderie with the masses... his own "being down with the folk" as opposed to snobby over-intellectualized "elitists"... but such is belied by his own aesthetic preferences and his own education (I doubt too many of the folk have ever even heard of Saussure, Chomsky, and Derrida). I might suggest this is not far from the sort of rhetoric spouted by certain politicians in attempting to suggest that their opponents have less in common with the common voter than they do.

    If we admit that content is primary and language secondary, or if they were equal, or if perhaps there were such a thing as a universal then that would mean that the popular would share a common ground with the elite and would have to be judged on a gradient rather than a good/bad mutually exlusive dichotomy.

    I personally do not imagine form (language) as primary... but neither would I suggest content is first. I have stated before that I feel that form and content are intertwined. Content without a strong form is nothing. Simply writing about important subjects (racism, class struggle, ethical choices, etc...) is not enough to assure a work a place among the great works of literature. On the other hand... the form married to a shallow or empty subject matter can certainly lead to rather trite... albeit beautiful... works of art. One thinks immediately of the candy-cane paintings of the French Rococo. The greatest works of art have always exhibited a marvelous merger of form and content... perhaps to the point that the two cannot be separated. Neither do I feel that the suggestion that some works of art are towering achievements immediately disqualifies everything else. Shakespeare, the Bible, Homer, Dante... and I suspect the Shanameh may be achievements that far surpass most works of art... but that does not mean that works not of this level are to be immediately excluded. I quite like Augusto Monterroso, Edgar Allen Poe, H.G. Wells, J.S. LeFanu, Lord Dunsany... and many others I am more than certain are not on the same aesthetic level. I find much to enjoy in Sir Walter Raleigh, Sir John Davies' Orchestra, and Michael Drayton's Nymphidia... in spite of the fact that they most certainly are not the equal of A Mid-Summers' Night Dream, let alone Hamlet.

    Back in March we had this discussion on the Byron, Shelley, or Keats? Thread, and there also I made the case for theme, subject, and content. StLukesGuild and Petrarch's Love illustrated their position with the example of Arthur Brooke's Romeus and Juliet. They claimed that what made Shakespeare's version better was his skillful handling of language. What they failed to address, and what I was too tired to point out, was that although Brooke's Romeus and Juliet was inferior to Shakespeare's Romeo and Juliet, the content probably raised it above the main of Brooke's own oeuvre.

    Mortal... you mistake me. I most certainly would not have ever made such a comparison... having never read anything by Brooke. On the other hand... I would certainly be willing to point out endless works of art that have a theme of real merit and fail to achieve the greatest level of success due to the failings of the form. Again... I don't think such comparisons are always a dichotomy of good/bad... but rather a scale of mediocre, good, better, even better, etc... Of course we all know that Mallarme's famous exclamation of ennui ("Life is long... and I have read all the books"... or words to that effect) was but empty rhetoric. None of us has the time to read... let alone fully devour and digest everything that has been written. Thus we make aesthetic decisions... and we need to make aesthetic decisions.

    JBI's stand has a second effect in that it allows him to raise works of art with unworthy themes, minimal content, obscure application, and oblique language, which wallow in narcisistic eccentricity to the level of greatness by virtue of their individual diction. Case in point, his mention of Finnegans Wake. There is no subject more frivolous than that of sophistry, the splitting of hairs, and disection of language. Authors who make words their subject are prone to the worst abuses of language and self-conscious navel gazing.

    Here I would raise the question as to what subjects, themes, or contents are more worthy than others... and who decides? Do we assume that erotic love or the adoration of beauty and nature are but trivialities in contrast to confronting issues such as mortality, honor, and injustice? Do we then assume that the works of art which focus upon such "trivialities" can never achieve a rank equal to the best works of art... or even equal to any work which deals with a theme of great import? Such was not far from the theory put forth in the filed of painting known as the "heirarchy of painting" in which it was suggested that any painting of a great historical painting was inherently better than even the best landscape or still-life. Undoubtedly it was against similar prejudice that the Art pour l'art movement was begun. By declaring the importance of the form or the aesthetic merit of a work of art, such artist were not so much negating the content as they were suggesting that external standards or considerations (religious, political, moral, social, etc...) should not be the measure of a work of art. Certainly the abuse of such a concept has led to self-indulgent and narcissistic schlock... but it has also meant that I can appreciate the Shahnameh, Dante's Inferno, Plato's Republic, etc... in spite of my not sharing the same religious or political values. I won't speak upon Finnegan's Wake. I was deeply impressed with Ulysses... although I far prefer Proust... but have yet given Joyce's final book the effort due.

    The authors he would raise from oblivion to the heights of Mount Parnassus are the ignoble pygmies who would gild a lily, polish a turd, and pen beautiful words in a cause for which it would be waste of breath to speak. “These same people also think themselves clever if one has to be clever to understand them, as Diomedes wittily remarked, and prefer to write something that will result in amazement rather than comprehension(Erasmus, De Copia).”

    Again... such seems rather false rhetoric. I have yet to hear JBI suggest we offer undying allegiance to any writer... nor have I ever suggested that even the greatest do not have their flaws and the mediocre their moments of brilliance.

    Finally, JBI and StLukesGuild are fond of saying that literature is not translatable. They quote Frost and say that “Poetry is what get's lost in translation.” This is one more view that can be extrapolated from their position. If the phonemes are more important to you than the enthymemes, then of course you are going to say that nothing is translatable.

    Again you wrongly accuse me. I have repeatedly defended translation:
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    Vincit Qui Se Vincit Virgil's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by JBI View Post
    Language isn't translatable, and the more complex it is, the more it relies on rhetorical devices, the less translatable it seems to be.
    Well, I just fundementally disagree with this. It's translated every day. Sure, one can pick a word that requires amplification. And if one comes across such a word then it eqires amplification and context. So instead of translating word for word it requires a paragraph to give the full context.

    Do you think Hemingway, for instance, would be Hemingway in Italian?
    If it were translated well, yes.

    No, he would be an Italian Hemingway.
    Huh? Double huh?

    Actually, lets take it further. Is Hemingway what he was to his original audience what he is now? IS Shakespeare? Is even Thomas Pynchon? Or some other still living writer? No. They are not. In fact, it is the ability of these works to adapt to new visions which contributes to their stature as great. The point though, is that the works are able to change.
    This is philisophic nonsense. You have to fill in the context because times and language has evolved, but that does not mean it's not translatable. Ask a Shakespearean scholar and see if he understands Shakespeare.
    Last edited by Virgil; 12-04-2008 at 11:39 PM.
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    Bibliophile JBI's Avatar
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    Look at classical reactions. For instance, look at responses of Enlightenment thinkers, even Dr. Johnson, to what have been called by them "Shakespeare's Quibbles" that is, his use of puns and other rhetorical devices loathed by the Enlightenment audience.

    There is a long history of staging plays with modified endings of Shakespeare too. King Lear with a nonsensical marriage at the end, or Othello with Desdemona living, and Iago getting punished. Such is the differing response.

    The actual meaning of the words is only one part of literature. The rhythm of the words, is another. The way they are interpreted is also a subject of variance. I am told that Russian audiences find The Taming of the Shrew to be Roll on the Floor funny, and the torturing of Kate the Cursed to be hysterical, but do, lets say, American audiences react the same way? Do individual persons react the same way?

    But beyond that though, there is always a loss of something when translation goes through. Even the best translators cannot recreate the original. We merely accept this, and decide that having some notion is better than none, or allow the translator liberty in saying that we can appreciate the art of the book, or poem, despite it not being the original. But the fact remains, it is not the original.

    Just look at this from Leopardi with a rather accurate, though dull rendition into English:

    Oh Nature, Nature
    why do you not give now
    what you promised then? Why
    do you so deceive your children?

    And now in the original, humor me please by reading it aloud.

    O natura, o natura,
    perché non rendi poi
    quel che prometti allor? perché di tanto
    inganni i figli tuoi?


    Which sounds better? Clearly the original. What is lost? The flavor.
    Last edited by JBI; 12-04-2008 at 11:50 PM.

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    Falling back into a debate about the canon, or lamenting the art of translation, seems to offer little, if anything, about universality, or the lack of it. (shrug) I do not know if linguistics is in reality a hard science, since the field seems to be about the (universal) function of language, which, at least for me, leaves me less frustrated than JBI about notions of equivalence. Just because I don't understand Arabic, this doesn't mean that Arabic authors don't write about love with the same sense of fatality, and if we include the modern rise of sharia, maybe even brutality--that we find in Donne, or an old Hollywood Gene Kelly score, where domestic violence is alive and well, and still an American trope, long before it gave rise to the identity politics of the late 20th century. When this discussion gives me a reason to care, I'll let you know.

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    I am rather confused here...
    There is anyone arguing that literature is not moved by interpretations and those interpretations are constantly changing with time and perspective ? (Considering that any aesthetic effect depends on context and not only on the production...)

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    liber vermicula Bitterfly's Avatar
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    JBI, long and thought-provoking post, as usual.
    But I have a few remarks.

    Your basic premise is that literature is language, and that's why it cannot be universal, because it is dependant on a particular language and therefore loses much when is translated. I suppose you believe Shakespeare would not have been Shakespeare had he written in another language, right? Second premise: that literature is dependant on context, once again particular. Third premise: that books are read in so many different ways that it is illusory to believe that they point to a universal truth.

    I sort of agree with you, probably in part because I've been to the same post-structuralist school of criticism as you! But the structuralists, with their quest to find universal structures - and therefore truths, in a way - seem to have been too quickly forgotten and disparaged. The painting you say there is nothing universal about seems to me to take up a universal motif: the mother with child (be she a Madonna or a pagan goddess, or just a peasant). When you speak of a multiplicity of interpretations for each book, OK, but don't you agree that in most works there is something which cannot be read differently by each reader. Take a simple example, Donne's "The Flea": isn't the poem, at a very basic level, showing a man who wants to have sex? Is there something more universal than that? For me, two themes at least are universal - sex and death, with their correlatives of birth, sickness, resurrection etc - even if the manner in which they are treated is necessarily relative.

    You can't explain everything with universal structures, but you can't deny they seem to exist - as long as there is a human condition, with universal characteristics, why shouldn't they? I think your identification of literature only with language is far too reductive: there is something else in art, that speaks about what we are. And we're not only products of discourse and context.

    It is difficult to understand art from other cultures, when you haven't been steeped in them. But that is, I think, because we're not capable of going beyond the forms they take on. Under the surface of Arabic art, as Jozanny expressed it, we can find the same emotions as in Western art, if we're ready to look for it.

    I'm also very surprised to find you of all people defending relativity. Maybe you don't like Harry Potter because you don't understand it, then?

    This debate has raised another question for me: is there a "national genius", ie something which makes French literature French, American literature American, etc.? Or does art in general transcend such divides?

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    Bibliophile Drkshadow03's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by JCamilo View Post
    I am rather confused here...
    There is anyone arguing that literature is not moved by interpretations and those interpretations are constantly changing with time and perspective ? (Considering that any aesthetic effect depends on context and not only on the production...)
    Most of the time meaning or the "universal truths" that power literature don't significantly change with time. Significance, however, does change.
    "You understand well enough what slavery is, but freedom you have never experienced, so you do not know if it tastes sweet or bitter. If you ever did come to experience it, you would advise us to fight for it not with spears only, but with axes too." - Herodotus

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    So, it is all about the old alegory controversy or the whole "Every man is either platonic or Aristolean" remark by Coleridge?
    It should be rather obvious that calling a few symbols, vallues or themes as universal is a matter of interpretation and not truth. And vice-versa? In the end no work of literature is great because it uses universal anything or particular anything, but for the combination and conflict between both mindset, coming from the vallues and perspectives of the writer to the vallues of the public reading it ?

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    Bitterfly--

    I am increasingly impressed by your moderating influences! I can respect post-structuralist anxiety over meaning, and I can respect, and even believe, that cultural norms inform upon interpretation. For example, I think barbara, a member here, has a much better grasp of Grass'es ironies in The Tin Drum than I do, because she is fluent in German and I'm not. But by the same token, I believe that any person can put their mind to studying and understanding what fascinates them. Conceptualization is not ultimately shrouded and mysterious, not in terms of understanding ourselves. It is not enough for me simply to assert that because translation is an approximation, that we are still driven off from the Tower of Babel.
    Last edited by Jozanny; 12-05-2008 at 03:47 PM.

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    Bibliophile Drkshadow03's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by JCamilo View Post
    So, it is all about the old alegory controversy or the whole "Every man is either platonic or Aristolean" remark by Coleridge?
    It should be rather obvious that calling a few symbols, vallues or themes as universal is a matter of interpretation and not truth. And vice-versa? In the end no work of literature is great because it uses universal anything or particular anything, but for the combination and conflict between both mindset, coming from the vallues and perspectives of the writer to the vallues of the public reading it ?
    So you're arguing that the literature gets its greatness through the dialectic tensions between the values of the writer versus the values of the reading public?

    On what grounds, what evidence, can you show to demostrate that there aren't universal themes at work in Literature?

    It is the form of expression - the way that which has been expressed is being expressed. Poetry itself functions, I would argue, as one long question on what it means to be creative - to have a creative impulse.

    In that sense, one could argue poems about death deal with a question of expressing the feelings of death, not of death. Death is universal, but the expression is a mere form - a vision.
    I'm not even sure this debate is worth having. Mostly because I feel like we've all had this debate in various forms over multiple threads in this forum. The usual suspects will agree and disagree with each other.


    What is the core of this debate? Reading through JBI's post this is going to turn into the same old argument: content versus aesthetics. I think literature is about meaning. Aesthetics are important to a degree and I appreciate them, but getting at the heart of what a story is about, a symbol means, a character's action tells us is the real meat-and-potatoes of literature. Language is just the delivery device. Now in the last sentence I admit to be overstating my own views somewhat, as I already pointed out I do in fact appreciate original use of language and beautiful sentences and all the other rhetorical techniques for the pure pleasure that they derive, but there is no denying I am much more interested in the ideas of literature.

    In response to JBI's ideas that I linked to above, I think there is far more going on in poetry and novels than a tradition that is nothing more than one long self-reflexive commentary of itself and the nature of creativity. I know how quaint of me.
    "You understand well enough what slavery is, but freedom you have never experienced, so you do not know if it tastes sweet or bitter. If you ever did come to experience it, you would advise us to fight for it not with spears only, but with axes too." - Herodotus

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  13. #13
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    Quote Originally Posted by Drkshadow03 View Post
    So you're arguing that the literature gets its greatness through the dialectic tensions between the values of the writer versus the values of the reading public?
    Not the vallue, the dialogue between them. The intent of the writer against the interpretation of the reader. Both are going to use watever is universal vallue or symbols to influence the reader or the reader to use the work. But they will also use particular skill, symbol etc. And it is a fair game.

    On what grounds, what evidence, can you show to demostrate that there aren't universal themes at work in Literature?
    In none, how could I if I said nothing about it? You can classify several themes as universal, put them in the same bag - Let's say Campbell Hero's Journey. All fine. Star Wars, Lord of The Rings, Jesus's stories, Ulisses and Superman (the movie) have elements that can be in found in hero's journey. What this tell me ? I know you can break the system and still have a good artwork (after all, a lot of artistic acomplishment is originated from breaking old systems and themes), I can follow it and have good work also. I am abhored when someone uses this kind of classification to analyse artworks because it always seems to me like someone pointing to a iguana, a grasshopper and a mariner with green camouflage and telling "they are green, they have all the same color" and saying it is an analyse, insteand of telling me how this was developed, the path followed for mimetism, what is means for each being, etc.
    But yeah, I am very uncertain of anything universal or the idea that something carries within this power , but I can not deny that some symbols and stories are easily understood by the majority.

    What is the core of this debate? Reading through JBI's post this is going to turn into the same old argument: content versus aesthetics. I think literature is about meaning. Aesthetics are important to a degree and I appreciate them, but getting at the heart of what a story is about, a symbol means, a character's action tells us is the real meat-and-potatoes of literature. Language is just the delivery device. Now in the last sentence I admit to be overstating my own views somewhat, as I already pointed out I do in fact appreciate original use of language and beautiful sentences and all the other rhetorical techniques for the pure pleasure that they derive, but there is no denying I am much more interested in the ideas of literature.
    I think if Literature is about meaning would mean that any text would be judged by the vallue of the information and the clarity to understand it. Therefore, Eistein and Darwin would replace Shakespeare and Joyce in the literatary cannon.
    Seriously, I think in Art (not just literature) Style is substance. I can always agree with Chechkov that both must work together when we produce a good story. Someone was powerful as Joyce would be mumble jumble if he didnt found a theme to deal in Finnegans Wake. That aesthetic experience to tell a detective story would fail and at sametime, Borges's clarity would fail if used t tell the experience of a mind asleep, dreaming, being affected only (mostly) by memory. Or, imagine the precise idea of Dante expressed with Whitman's free versing? Or Whitman trying to conform his hymm to freedom and equality using Dante's precision ? So, always, Style is Substance.

  14. #14
    Vincit Qui Se Vincit Virgil's Avatar
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    I didn’t have time last night to give a full response. Let me try to fill in my thoughts.

    First of all I believe whatever gap exists in between a writer and a reader can be summed with two words, imprecision and context.

    The easier one to explain is context. Context may be required to explain cultural differences, either from contemporaneous but different groups or those separated because of time. If there is a phrase that doesn’t translate, one then may need a fuller explanation, a whole sentence, a paragraph, or even a whole book to explain the context and usage and connotations or folk pattern or religious belief. But it is translatable. Look at a scholarly edition of Dante’s Divine Comedy and see how each line, sometimes phrases and words are explicated. Of course it is possible to have lost through history the complete context of a word or a phrase, but that’s not because it wasn’t translatable, it was physically lost. That is the job of a scholar, to read as much of an era as possible, learn as much as possible of the customs and habits and thought processes of an era, and use that knowledge to fill in the context of a work. To say that an American cannot understand Flaubert’s Madam Bovary from a good translation and scholarly commentary is just wrong. To say that an Italian cannot understand Hemingway’s The Sun Also Rises from a good translation and scholarly commentary is wrong. Today I was thinking of my reading of Gilgamesh. It is quite possible, actually likely, that context has been lost to history. Sure, that is the case, but that does not mean that the language itself has caused that gap? Not at all.

    As to imprecision, there are a number of places where it can occur. Let us assume full context is understood. One, the writer may imprecisely formulate a thought or observation; two the writer may correctly formulate the thought or observation and imprecisely express it; three the reader may imprecisely understand what the writer intended; and four if a translator is involved imprecisely translate the language. Imprecision is a failure of stating what one means clearly, it is not a failure of language. All you have to do is look at freshman papers and you will find the writer’s failures at clarity. It’s not the failure of language that a freshman wrote the way he did, it’s the freshman. And do not confuse a writer striving for ambiguity and complexity as a failure of language. Great writers are consciously creating interlocking connections between words and experiences. True, it may be hard fully comprehend the meaning. That’s not a failure of language, but a not fully understanding the context. Yes, back to context.

    Let’s just assume for a second that JBI is correct and that some element of language is untranslatable. How much? A little tiny bit as far as I can see. 99.9% of Flaubert’s meaning in Madam Bovary must come across to an American reading a translation. Well, nothing in life is perfect 100%. Is a fraction of a percent inaccuracy justify the huge leap that JBI makes? That language is inadequate? If it is adequate 99% of the time, then why would one derive a conclusion on frankly less than one percent? Because, in short, academics have gone off the deep end in tha last forty years.

    Under JBI’s notion, my conversation with my own mother is futile. We can’t communicate. We are speaking different languages.

    JBI, let me also apologize for my crankiness on this issue. Academic arguments that defy common sense just bug me.
    LET THERE BE LIGHT

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  15. #15
    Bibliophile JBI's Avatar
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    What about Flaubert's precise vocabulary, in which he chose each word specifically for its sound, and the possible meanings it could carry. What about the context in general?

    Knowing the trends in historical writing, the context is always obscured, no matter what. Context can only be guessed at. We know how the Renaissance writers probably thought, but the spirit of the age, in the sense that they understood it, is definitely lost.

    Not even that though - the way we read literature is completely different now than in the past. Our tastes are atuned to different things, our expectations are idfferent, are reactions more subtle, and I would argue less emotional.

    Shakespeare's sonnets for instance, cannot possibly be read the same way as they were in the first few additions, or even in 1950. Our reaction to the text alone, regardless of meaning, has clearly changed.

    Our society is different, so we can't look at the texts the same way. We don't expect, or get the same things from literature. Take this for example:


    Sonnet 30
    When to the sessions of sweet silent thought
    I summon up remembrance of things past,
    I sigh the lack of many a thing I sought,
    And with old woes new wail my dear time's waste:
    Then can I drown an eye, unused to flow,
    For precious friends hid in death's dateless night,
    And weep afresh love's long since cancell'd woe,
    And moan the expense of many a vanish'd sight:
    Then can I grieve at grievances foregone,
    And heavily from woe to woe tell o'er
    The sad account of fore-bemoanèd moan,
    Which I new pay as if not paid before.
    But if the while I think on thee, dear friend,
    All losses are restored and sorrows end.

    I think contemporary readers would, putting asside the authors reputation, generally agree that the poem is quite hyperbolic, and a bit a flop. The ending doesn't satisfy the argument, and to us, I think the speakers thought of his dear friend quenching his sorrows is rather silly. I think also, that the periphrasis in the first 3 quatrains would, to us, seem a little over the top. The language seems hyperbolic and manipulative, echoing itself in the couplet, where the resolution isn't really one. The poem, as a poem outside of the poets reputation therefore, can be taken to be a bit of a flop.

    In truth, different scholarly opinions show the destruction of a so called "universal". Lycidas for instance, Milton's famous Elegy, was considered a failure by Doctor Johnson, and perhaps now gets its reputation thanks to the works of William Hazlitt, expressing the opposite.

    Alexander Pope, for instance, wrote a modified version of Shakespeare, brought into the "Tastes" of his time, that is, long couplets and couplets to cure Shakespeare of his "technical mistakes". Ironically enough, the poor reaction to the text led him to write probably his best poem, the Dunciad, but that isn't the point. The point is, he saw it fit to fix Shakespeare. The same way Louis Zukofsky would, in the 20th century, remove all the words he deemed "pointless" from the Sonnets.


    What we think we know about a context of a text is a mere guess. We cannot possibly recreate the reaction that the text a) originally had on audiences and b) was intended to have on audiences. We can try to interpret texts within their historical context, but we cannot read them in their original context. We can only say this fits with a, and this fits with b, and this was influenced by c.

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