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Alfred001
10-02-2013, 01:22 PM
I was listening to a talk this lady was giving about London and she mentioned how he'd been dropping out of college syllabi for two reasons: that, in the age of feminism, he is seen as hypermasculine and that he was racist.

I have two questions about htis:

1) Does anyone know what precisely she means by hypermasculine? Was he demeaning to women?

2) How is it appropriate to drop someone from college curriculum because he was a racist? Shouldn't we be teaching all ideas/art regardless of how we judge them morally? Are there other writers who've been dropped for similar reasons?

OrphanPip
10-02-2013, 03:23 PM
I would contend that London is dropping out of university syllabuses (I'm not sure he was ever really a standard inclusions) because he provides limited academic interest. He is not a particularly interesting stylist, and his subject matter is only of some interest to some segments of Americanists and ecocritics, but otherwise he is just not that interesting. He is considered by most to be a popular classic like Wells or Doyle, he garners some scholarly interest but no one would bat an eye at his exclusion from a survey course.

Lokasenna
10-02-2013, 04:05 PM
I would contend that London is dropping out of university syllabuses (I'm not sure he was ever really a standard inclusions) because he provides limited academic interest. He is not a particularly interesting stylist, and his subject matter is only of some interest to some segments of Americanists and ecocritics, but otherwise he is just not that interesting. He is considered by most to be a popular classic like Wells or Doyle, he garners some scholarly interest but no one would bat an eye at his exclusion from a survey course.

Agreed.

Hypermasculinity is interesting in and of itself, and if abhorent personal views were an issue we would never study Twain, Pound, Dickens, Naipaul, Larkin... gods, the list is endless.