_poptart_
03-02-2008, 09:33 AM
Much of the criticism I have read, regarding her use of the metaphor of slavery to evoke ideas of domestic oppression, argues that Bronte ignores the material realities of colonial expoitation, and that Jane's affiliation with the enslaved subject is problematic precisely because the likening only serves to be benficial to her.
However, do you think it can be said that the very use of the metaphor gives voice to the silent oppressed, and that it is inevitable Bronte would not discuss the realities of slavery in her novel because she is writing from her own subjective experience in Britain?
any thoughts on whether you think Bronte's likening of a poor lower-class woman to a slave is justified?
However, do you think it can be said that the very use of the metaphor gives voice to the silent oppressed, and that it is inevitable Bronte would not discuss the realities of slavery in her novel because she is writing from her own subjective experience in Britain?
any thoughts on whether you think Bronte's likening of a poor lower-class woman to a slave is justified?