Macbeth why "make's"

[wb810]

Hello,
What is the origin of the word "make's" in the quote ending ...make's love known."? Why the apostrophy s('s) at the end of the word make?

Thank you!

wb810

[Shea]

where is that in the play?

[Tabac]

Hello,
What is the origin of the word "make's" in the quote ending ...make's love known."? Why the apostrophy s('s) at the end of the word make?

Thank you!

wb810
In the Bard's time, orthography, etc., were much less regulated than they are now. Even Charles Dickens, much later, was inconsistent with his spelling and grammatical constructions.

By the way, I humbly admit that I have absolutely no idea how to answer your question. :nod:

[mono]

I have noticed, and wondered, at the subject too. The previous entry's response sounds the most logical, but the odd punctuation appears in Shakespeare's title, or so I think, Love's Labour's Lost. Then again, all of rhetoric proves imaginary, if I may say without sounding blasphemous to literary art. Good luck, regardless.

[Tori]

"Love's Labour's Lost" isn't necessarily incorrect..could be the Love of Labour is Lost...

Could you post the entire sentence, wb810? Would be easier to find it out then :)

And also, grammatics at the time wasn't that strict really.. Shakespeare supposedly wrote his name in four different ways..